Karinoya Learning Room

Qualifications · IT Passport Success Lab

Corporate and Legal Affairs

Read the questions and explanations in English. The lectures (explanatory articles) are available in Japanese only.

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Q1 | Management resources

When a company's management resources are classified into people, goods, money, and information, which of the following corresponds to information?

  1. Customer purchase data accumulated over years of transactions
  2. A newly hired sales representative assigned to a department
  3. Production equipment installed in a factory to assemble products
  4. Funds borrowed from a bank for operating the business
AnswerA. Customer purchase data accumulated over years of transactions

Customer purchase data is an intangible resource that can be analyzed and used for decision making, so it corresponds to information. Production equipment is goods, borrowed funds are money, and a sales representative is people; each falls under a different management resource, so the others are wrong.

Q2 | PDCA

In the PDCA cycle, which stage revises the plan or the way of working based on the results of evaluation?

  1. Act
  2. Do
  3. Check
  4. Plan
AnswerA. Act

Act, improvement, is the stage that revises the way of working based on the problems revealed in Check, evaluation, and connects them to the next plan. Plan is drawing up the plan, Do is executing according to it, and Check is comparing plan with results to evaluate; none of these is the revision itself.

Q3 | Divisional organization

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of a divisional organization?

  1. Employees belong simultaneously to two chains of command, function and business, allowing flexible use of people.
  2. People are gathered across departments for a limited period for a specific purpose, and the group disbands once the purpose is achieved.
  3. The organization is divided by type of work such as development, manufacturing, and sales, raising specialization.
  4. The organization is divided into units such as products or regions, and each division is given responsibility for profit.
AnswerD. The organization is divided into units such as products or regions, and each division is given responsibility for profit.

A divisional organization is a form in which divisions split by product or region bear responsibility down to profit; decision making is fast, but duplicated functions tend to raise costs. Dividing by type of work is a functional organization, a time-limited formation is a project organization, and belonging to two chains is a matrix organization.

Q4 | Organization forms

In which organizational form do employees belong to both a functional department and a product department, sometimes receiving instructions from two bosses?

  1. Divisional organization
  2. Functional organization
  3. Matrix organization
  4. In-house company system
AnswerC. Matrix organization

The matrix organization gives each person two simultaneous affiliations, vertical by function and horizontal by product or business; people can be used flexibly, but conflicting instructions easily cause confusion. In functional organizations, divisional organizations, and the in-house company system, each employee belongs to a single chain, so two bosses are not the premise.

Q5 | CIO

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of the CIO's role?

  1. Bears ultimate responsibility for the company's management as a whole.
  2. Oversees the company-wide information strategy and IT investment in line with the business strategy.
  3. Oversees finance and fund-raising operations.
  4. Personally performs the daily operation of servers and networks and handles failures as they occur.
AnswerB. Oversees the company-wide information strategy and IT investment in line with the business strategy.

The CIO, chief information officer, is the executive responsible for the information strategy and IT investment. Responsibility for management as a whole belongs to the CEO, overseeing finance to the CFO, and daily operation work to the staff of the information systems department; none of these describes the CIO's role.

Q6 | OJT

Which of the following corresponds to OJT?

  1. Gathering employees at an external training facility to learn the basics of bookkeeping systematically, away from daily work.
  2. A supervisor coaching a newly assigned employee in procedures while having them handle actual work.
  3. The company subsidizing exam fees for employees who pass a certification exam.
  4. An employee taking a correspondence course outside working hours at their own expense.
AnswerB. A supervisor coaching a newly assigned employee in procedures while having them handle actual work.

OJT is a development method in which supervisors and seniors coach through actual work in the workplace, and coaching while assigning real tasks is the typical example. External group training is Off-JT, self-funded correspondence courses are self-development, and subsidizing exam fees is support for self-development; none of these is OJT.

Q7 | BCP

Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of formulating a BCP, a business continuity plan?

  1. To regularly inspect information systems for vulnerabilities, fix them, and prevent unauthorized external access in advance.
  2. To estimate the investment amount and payback period of a new business and evaluate whether to invest.
  3. To keep critical operations running even when a disaster or major failure occurs, or to recover them within a target time.
  4. To review normal-time work procedures, eliminate waste, and raise productivity.
AnswerC. To keep critical operations running even when a disaster or major failure occurs, or to recover them within a target time.

A BCP is a plan for keeping critical operations running in an emergency, or resuming them within the target recovery time. Raising normal-time productivity is process improvement, vulnerability inspection is a security measure, and investment evaluation is an investment-decision technique; each differs from the purpose of a BCP.

Q8 | CSR

Which of the following is the most appropriate activity for a company to carry out as part of CSR?

  1. Making the financial results look better than they are to prevent the share price from falling.
  2. Agreeing on selling prices with competitors in advance to secure the industry's overall profit margin.
  3. Filing patent applications for newly developed technology to prevent imitation by other companies.
  4. Publishing reduction targets for the carbon dioxide emitted by its business activities and reporting progress on them every year.
AnswerD. Publishing reduction targets for the carbon dioxide emitted by its business activities and reporting progress on them every year.

CSR is a company's effort to fulfill its responsibilities to society and the environment, and publishing and reporting on environmental-impact reduction targets is a representative example. Price agreements violate Japan's Antimonopoly Act, window-dressing accounts is an illegal act, and patent filing is ordinary business activity, so none of them counts as CSR.

Q9 | Corporate governance

Which of the following is the most appropriate initiative for strengthening corporate governance?

  1. Installing a firewall at the gateway of the company network so that unauthorized communications can be blocked.
  2. Moving production of the main products to overseas factories with lower labor costs.
  3. Appointing outside directors so that management's decision making can be monitored from an external viewpoint.
  4. Reducing employees' overtime hours to hold down personnel costs.
AnswerC. Appointing outside directors so that management's decision making can be monitored from an external viewpoint.

Corporate governance is a mechanism for monitoring management and keeping it sound and transparent, and appointing outside directors is a representative means of doing so. Reducing overtime and relocating production are cost management, and installing a firewall is an information security measure, so they differ from the purpose of monitoring management.

Q10 | Balance sheet

Which relationship always holds on a balance sheet?

  1. Liabilities = assets + net assets
  2. Assets = liabilities − net assets
  3. Assets = liabilities + net assets
  4. Net assets = assets + liabilities
AnswerC. Assets = liabilities + net assets

A balance sheet lists assets on the left and liabilities and net assets on the right, and the totals of the two sides always match, so assets = liabilities + net assets holds. The other three are incorrect rearrangements of this relationship; in each the two sides do not balance, so they do not hold.

Q11 | Gross profit

When sales are 50,000,000 yen, cost of sales is 32,000,000 yen, and selling, general and administrative expenses are 10,000,000 yen, what is the gross profit, in units of 10,000 yen?

  1. 1,800
  2. 4,000
  3. 800
  4. 3,200
AnswerA. 1,800

Gross profit = sales − cost of sales = 5,000 − 3,200 = 1,800, in units of 10,000 yen. 800 is the operating profit after further subtracting selling, general and administrative expenses, 3,200 is the cost of sales itself, and 4,000 is sales minus only the selling, general and administrative expenses; none of these is the gross profit.

Q12 | Operating profit

Which of the following appropriately describes operating profit?

  1. The profit obtained by adding extraordinary gains to ordinary profit and subtracting extraordinary losses
  2. The profit obtained by subtracting cost of sales from sales
  3. The profit obtained by subtracting corporate taxes from profit before taxes
  4. The profit obtained by subtracting selling, general and administrative expenses from gross profit
AnswerD. The profit obtained by subtracting selling, general and administrative expenses from gross profit

Operating profit shows how much was earned from the core business and is calculated by subtracting selling, general and administrative expenses from gross profit. Sales minus cost of sales is gross profit, ordinary profit adjusted for extraordinary gains and losses is profit before taxes, and that minus corporate taxes is net profit for the period.

Q13 | Break-even point

When fixed costs are 8,000,000 yen and the variable cost ratio is 0.6, what is the break-even sales figure, in units of 10,000 yen?

  1. 2,000
  2. 1,333
  3. 1,280
  4. 3,200
AnswerA. 2,000

Break-even sales = fixed costs ÷ (1 − variable cost ratio) = 800 ÷ (1 − 0.6) = 2,000, in units of 10,000 yen. At sales of 2,000, variable costs of 1,200 plus fixed costs of 800 equal sales, and profit is zero. 1,333 is the mistake of dividing fixed costs by the variable cost ratio; at 1,280 total costs exceed sales and a loss results; at 3,200 a profit arises instead; in neither case is profit zero.

Q14 | Break-even point

A company has sales of 30,000,000 yen, variable costs of 12,000,000 yen, and fixed costs of 9,000,000 yen. What is its break-even sales figure, in units of 10,000 yen?

  1. 2,250
  2. 900
  3. 2,100
  4. 1,500
AnswerD. 1,500

The variable cost ratio is 1,200 ÷ 3,000 = 0.4, so break-even sales = 900 ÷ (1 − 0.4) = 1,500, in units of 10,000 yen. 900 is the fixed costs themselves, 2,100 is the sum of variable and fixed costs, and 2,250 is the wrong result of dividing fixed costs by the variable cost ratio; none of them is correct.

Q15 | ROE

Which formula gives ROE, return on equity?

  1. Equity ÷ total assets × 100
  2. Net profit ÷ total assets × 100
  3. Net profit ÷ equity × 100
  4. Sales ÷ total assets × 100
AnswerC. Net profit ÷ equity × 100

ROE shows how efficiently the equity contributed by shareholders was turned into profit and is calculated as net profit ÷ equity × 100. Net profit ÷ total assets is ROA, equity ÷ total assets is the equity ratio, and sales ÷ total assets is total asset turnover; each is a different indicator.

Q16 | ROA

A company has net profit of 1,200,000 yen, total assets of 30,000,000 yen, and equity of 10,000,000 yen. What is its ROA in percent?

  1. 4
  2. 33.3
  3. 0.04
  4. 12
AnswerA. 4

ROA = net profit ÷ total assets × 100 = 120 ÷ 3,000 × 100 = 4%, with the amounts in units of 10,000 yen. 12% is the ROE obtained by dividing by equity, 33.3% is the equity ratio from equity ÷ total assets, and 0.04 is the value with the multiplication by 100 forgotten; none of these is correct as ROA.

Q17 | Equity ratio

Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about a company with a high equity ratio?

  1. Total assets are being converted into sales efficiently.
  2. The share of borrowed funds, others' capital, is large, and the interest burden is heavy.
  3. The ratio of profit to sales is large.
  4. The share of funds with no repayment obligation is large, and financial safety is high.
AnswerD. The share of funds with no repayment obligation is large, and financial safety is high.

The equity ratio is equity ÷ total assets × 100 and shows the share of total assets financed by equity, which requires no repayment, so the higher it is, the smaller the dependence on borrowing and the higher the safety. A large share of borrowing means a low equity ratio, and profit margins and total asset turnover are what other indicators show.

Q18 | Depreciation

Which of the following appropriately describes depreciation?

  1. Splitting the acquisition cost of a long-life fixed asset over its useful life and recording it as expenses.
  2. Recording a year's cash receipts and payments divided into the three categories of operating, investing, and financing activities.
  3. Repaying the principal of a loan in fixed annual installments.
  4. Gradually lowering the selling price of unsold goods and disposing of them as inventory.
AnswerA. Splitting the acquisition cost of a long-life fixed asset over its useful life and recording it as expenses.

Depreciation is the accounting treatment that allocates the acquisition cost of long-use assets, such as buildings and machinery, to the expenses of each period according to their useful life. Markdown disposal is inventory handling, principal repayment is a movement of funds, and classifying cash flows describes the cash flow statement; none of these is depreciation.

Q19 | Pareto chart

Which chart arranges items as bars in descending order of count and overlays a line showing the cumulative percentage?

  1. Scatter diagram
  2. Cause-and-effect diagram
  3. Pareto chart
  4. Control chart
AnswerC. Pareto chart

A Pareto chart consists of bars in descending order of count or amount and a cumulative-percentage line, and it is used to narrow down the items with the largest impact. A cause-and-effect diagram is for identifying causes, a scatter diagram for the correlation between two items, and a control chart for judging whether a process is stable; both form and purpose differ.

Q20 | ABC analysis

Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of ABC analysis?

  1. To identify the causes of an outcome by branching them out, large bones and small bones, in a fishbone-like diagram.
  2. To plot the values of two items on the vertical and horizontal axes and examine whether they are correlated.
  3. To plot measurements in time sequence and compare them with control limit lines to judge whether the process is in a stable state.
  4. To divide products into three ranks in descending order of sales value or similar, and manage them according to importance.
AnswerD. To divide products into three ranks in descending order of sales value or similar, and manage them according to importance.

ABC analysis ranks items into A, B, and C based on cumulative percentages of value or similar, and concentrates management on the important A rank. Examining correlation is the purpose of a scatter diagram, judging process stability of a control chart, and identifying causes of a cause-and-effect diagram; none of these is ABC analysis.

Q21 | Fishbone diagram

Which diagram writes out the causes of an outcome such as the occurrence of defects, branched into categories such as people, machines, materials, and methods?

  1. Scatter diagram
  2. Pareto chart
  3. Cause-and-effect diagram
  4. Histogram
AnswerC. Cause-and-effect diagram

A cause-and-effect diagram represents the outcome, the characteristic, and its causes, the factors, as fishbone-like branches and is used to prevent causes from being overlooked. A histogram shows the distribution of data, a Pareto chart narrows down priority items, and a scatter diagram examines the correlation between two items; none suits classifying causes.

Q22 | Scatter diagram

You want to examine whether there is a relationship between temperature and ice cream sales. Which diagram is most suitable?

  1. Scatter diagram
  2. Control chart
  3. Check sheet
  4. Cause-and-effect diagram
AnswerA. Scatter diagram

A scatter diagram plots two items on the vertical and horizontal axes; if the points trend up to the right, a positive correlation can be judged, so it suits examining whether a relationship exists. A control chart is for detecting process anomalies, a check sheet for collecting data, and a cause-and-effect diagram for organizing causes; none suits grasping correlation.

Q23 | Control chart

Which of the following appropriately describes a control chart?

  1. Data is divided into several intervals, and the count in each interval is shown by the height of a bar.
  2. Counts per item are arranged as bars in descending order, and the targets for priority management are decided from the cumulative percentage.
  3. Opinions are written on cards one by one, and similar ones are grouped and organized.
  4. Measurements are plotted in time sequence, and process anomalies are judged by whether they exceed the control limit lines.
AnswerD. Measurements are plotted in time sequence, and process anomalies are judged by whether they exceed the control limit lines.

A control chart plots measurements over time and is used to judge a process anomaly when values exceed the control limits or show bias. Showing counts per interval is a histogram, deciding priorities by cumulative percentage is a Pareto chart, and organizing with cards describes the KJ method.

Q24 | Stratification

Which method tallies defect data separately, for example by the machine that produced the items or by the time slot in which the work was done, to examine differences?

  1. Normalization
  2. Standardization
  3. Stratification
  4. Leveling
AnswerC. Stratification

Stratification is one of the seven QC tools: it splits data by conditions such as machine, time slot, or worker, compares them, and pins down the cause of differences. Standardization is aligning to a standard, normalization is eliminating duplication in database design and the like, and leveling is evening out workloads; each is a different concept.

Q25 | Brainstorming

Which of the following is an appropriate principle of brainstorming?

  1. Call on speakers in descending order of rank to state their opinions.
  2. Decide the conclusion in advance and collect only opinions that fit it.
  3. Do not criticize the opinions expressed, and welcome building on other people's ideas.
  4. Eliminate ideas of low feasibility on the spot, keeping only high-quality proposals.
AnswerC. Do not criticize the opinions expressed, and welcome building on other people's ideas.

Brainstorming is an ideation method based on four principles: no criticism, freewheeling, quantity over quality, and combining and improving, that is, welcoming piggybacking. Selecting on the spot, calling in order of rank, and predetermining the conclusion all obstruct free thinking and violate the principles.

Q26 | Linear programming

Which technique finds the combination of product quantities that maximizes profit under limited raw materials and working hours, from constraints and an objective function expressed as linear expressions?

  1. Regression analysis
  2. Linear programming
  3. Delphi method
  4. Queueing theory
AnswerB. Linear programming

Linear programming expresses both the constraints and the objective function as linear expressions and finds the solution that maximizes or minimizes the objective. Regression analysis is a statistical technique expressing relationships between variables as equations, queueing theory analyzes waiting times, and the Delphi method is a forecasting technique that repeatedly aggregates expert opinions; their purposes differ.

Q27 | Fixed-quantity ordering

Which of the following appropriately describes the fixed-quantity ordering method?

  1. No inventory is held, and only the necessary quantity is produced when it becomes necessary.
  2. The same quantity as the previous year's sales results is ordered unchanged every year.
  3. At fixed times, such as the end of every month, the necessary quantity is calculated each time from inventory and demand forecasts and then ordered.
  4. When inventory falls to a predetermined reorder point, a fixed quantity is ordered each time.
AnswerD. When inventory falls to a predetermined reorder point, a fixed quantity is ordered each time.

The fixed-quantity ordering method orders a fixed quantity when inventory falls to the reorder point; its procedures are simple, so it suits low-unit-price items with stable demand. Calculating the necessary quantity at fixed times is the fixed-interval ordering method, and making the necessary quantity when needed is the just-in-time approach; these are different ideas.

Q28 | Copyright creation

Under Japan's Copyright Act, at what point does copyright come into existence?

  1. At the point when the work is first published
  2. At the point when the work is created
  3. At the point when a copyright notice, the circled C mark, is attached
  4. At the point when registration is applied for with the Agency for Cultural Affairs
AnswerB. At the point when the work is created

Japan takes the no-formality principle under its Copyright Act (Chosakuken-ho), so copyright arises automatically at the moment a work is created. Registration, publication, and copyright notices are not requirements for the right to arise; registration is merely a system for asserting transfers of rights and the like against third parties, so the other options are wrong.

Q29 | Protection period

For a work created by an individual and published under that person's name, until when does copyright protection last, as a rule?

  1. 20 years after creation
  2. 70 years after the author's death
  3. 50 years after publication
  4. 50 years after the author's death
AnswerB. 70 years after the author's death

The protection period for a work in an individual's name is, as a rule, 70 years after the author's death. 50 years after death was the former rule, since extended. Counting years from publication applies to works in a corporate name and to cinematographic works, and 20 years is the duration of a patent right, unrelated to copyright.

Q30 | Corporate works

For a work published in the name of a company, what is the protection period of the copyright, as a rule?

  1. 70 years from the company's founding
  2. 70 years after the death of the company's representative
  3. 70 years after publication
  4. 50 years after publication
AnswerC. 70 years after publication

The protection period for a work published in the name of a corporation or other organization is, as a rule, 70 years after publication. For a work in an individual's name it is counted as 70 years after the author's death, but a corporation has no death, so publication is the starting point. No rule counts from founding or from the representative's death.

Q31 | Outside protection

Under the Copyright Act, which of the following is not covered by the protection of works relating to programs?

  1. A source program written out concretely
  2. Programming languages and solutions, that is, algorithms, themselves
  3. An application program developed for business use
  4. An object program converted from a source program
AnswerB. Programming languages and solutions, that is, algorithms, themselves

Japan's Copyright Act provides that protection does not extend to the programming languages, conventions, and solutions themselves used to create programs. On the other hand, a concretely written source program, the object program converted from it, and business applications are protected as works.

Q32 | Works made for hire

Which of the following is an appropriate requirement for a work made for hire, a corporate work, to be established so that the company becomes the author?

  1. That the created work is filed with the Patent Office and registered after examination
  2. That the employee created it in the course of duties based on the corporation's initiative, and it is published in the corporation's name
  3. That the employee created it using the company's PCs and equipment during working hours
  4. That the company pays the employee who created it compensation for the work
AnswerB. That the employee created it in the course of duties based on the corporation's initiative, and it is published in the corporation's name

A work made for hire is established when an employee creates the work in the course of duties on the corporation's initiative, it is published in the corporation's name, and no contract or work rules provide otherwise. Using company equipment or paying compensation does not by itself satisfy the requirements, and since copyright needs no registration, filing with the Patent Office is irrelevant.

Q33 | Patent duration

What is the duration of a patent right, as a rule?

  1. 10 years from the filing date
  2. 25 years from the registration date
  3. 20 years from the registration date
  4. 20 years from the filing date
AnswerD. 20 years from the filing date

The duration of a patent right is, as a rule, 20 years from the filing date. The key point is that it is counted from the filing date, not the registration date. 10 years from filing is the duration of a utility model right and 25 years that of a design right; neither belongs to patents.

Q34 | Utility model

Which of the following is an appropriate characteristic of a utility model right?

  1. It covers names and marks that identify goods and services.
  2. It covers devices relating to the shape or structure of articles and is registered without substantive examination.
  3. It covers advanced inventions and is registered after strict substantive examination.
  4. The right arises automatically at the moment a work is created, without filing or registration procedures.
AnswerB. It covers devices relating to the shape or structure of articles and is registered without substantive examination.

A utility model right protects devices relating to the shape, structure, or combination of articles, and its distinctive feature is registration without substantive examination; its duration is 10 years from the filing date. Examining advanced inventions belongs to patent rights, protecting identifying marks to trademark rights, and automatic creation to copyright; none of these applies.

Q35 | Design right

Which is the appropriate combination of the right that protects the designs of industrial products, such as shapes and patterns, and its duration?

  1. Design right, 25 years from the filing date
  2. Copyright, 20 years from the registration date
  3. Design right, 10 years from the registration date
  4. Trademark right, 25 years from the filing date
AnswerA. Design right, 25 years from the filing date

Designs are protected by the design right, whose duration is 25 years from the filing date. 10 years from the registration date, renewable, belongs to trademark rights; copyright protects creative expression rather than industrial designs and has neither registration nor a 20-year duration, so the other combinations are wrong.

Q36 | Trademark right

Which of the following is an appropriate statement about the duration of a trademark right?

  1. It is 10 years from the registration date but can be extended repeatedly through renewal registration.
  2. Once registered, it continues forever without any renewal procedures.
  3. It continues until 70 years have passed after the right holder's death.
  4. It is 20 years from the filing date, and renewal after the period expires is entirely impossible.
AnswerA. It is 10 years from the registration date but can be extended repeatedly through renewal registration.

The duration of a trademark right is 10 years from the registration date, and by repeating renewal registration it can be maintained semi-permanently, which sharply distinguishes it from the other industrial property rights. 20 years from filing is the patent right, and 70 years after death is the copyright protection period; without renewal a trademark right lapses, so it is not perpetual.

Q37 | Trade secrets

What are the three requirements for information to be protected as a trade secret under the Unfair Competition Prevention Act?

  1. Novelty, inventive step, and industrial applicability
  2. Managed as secret, useful, and not publicly known
  3. Being paid for, continuity, and exclusivity
  4. Originality, publication, and registration
AnswerB. Managed as secret, useful, and not publicly known

Under Japan's Unfair Competition Prevention Act (Fusei Kyoso Boshi-ho), a trade secret must satisfy all three requirements: it is managed as a secret, it is useful for business, and it is not publicly known. Novelty, inventive step, and industrial applicability are requirements for obtaining a patent, and the other two sets are not requirements of this law.

Q38 | Unauthorized access

Which act is prohibited by the Act on Prohibition of Unauthorized Computer Access?

  1. Disclosing another person's ID and password, learned through work, to a third party without that person's consent.
  2. Viewing and saving information on a publicly available website.
  3. Logging in to an internal company system using the ID and password lent to you.
  4. Sending a private e-mail from a company PC with your boss's permission.
AnswerA. Disclosing another person's ID and password, learned through work, to a third party without that person's consent.

Providing another person's ID or password to a third party without that person's consent is prohibited by Japan's Act on Prohibition of Unauthorized Computer Access (Fusei Access Kinshi-ho) as an act facilitating unauthorized access. Logging in with an ID lent to you, use with permission, and viewing public information do not constitute unauthorized access, so the other options are wrong.

Q39 | Personal information

Which of the following falls under personal information as defined in the Act on the Protection of Personal Information?

  1. A list of living individual customers containing their names and dates of birth
  2. The career history of a historical figure who has already died
  3. A company's main phone number and head office address
  4. Visitor counts by age group, aggregated so that individuals cannot be identified
AnswerA. A list of living individual customers containing their names and dates of birth

Under Japan's Act on the Protection of Personal Information (Kojin Joho Hogo-ho), personal information is information about a living individual that can identify a specific person, so a customer list containing names and dates of birth qualifies. Aggregated figures cannot identify individuals, a company's contact details are corporate information, and information about a deceased person fails the requirement of being alive, so they do not qualify.

Q40 | Sensitive information

Which of the following falls under special care-required personal information as defined in the Act on the Protection of Personal Information?

  1. The person's medical history
  2. The person's mobile phone number
  3. The name of the person's employer
  4. The history of products the person has purchased
AnswerA. The person's medical history

Special care-required personal information covers information that could cause unjust discrimination or prejudice, such as race, creed, social status, medical history, criminal record, and the fact of having been a crime victim, and medical history is a representative example. Employer, phone number, and purchase history are personal information but do not qualify as special care-required personal information.

Q41 | Anonymized information

Which of the following is an appropriate statement about anonymously processed information?

  1. Even after processing according to the prescribed standards, providing it to third parties always requires the person's consent.
  2. Simply deleting the person's name is enough for the data to be treated as anonymously processed information.
  3. If it is processed according to the prescribed standards and the required procedures are followed, it can be provided to third parties without the person's consent.
  4. If needed for analysis, it may be restored to the original personal information and used.
AnswerC. If it is processed according to the prescribed standards and the required procedures are followed, it can be provided to third parties without the person's consent.

Anonymously processed information is information processed so that no specific individual can be identified and it cannot be restored to the original personal information; if the prescribed standards and procedures such as public disclosure are observed, it can be provided to third parties without the person's consent. Attempting restoration is prohibited, and merely deleting names does not satisfy the processing standards.

Q42 | Third-party provision

Which of the following is the appropriate principle when providing personal data to a third party?

  1. The person's consent must be obtained in advance.
  2. If the person is notified after the provision, the person's consent is unnecessary.
  3. If three or fewer items are provided, the person's consent is unnecessary.
  4. If the recipient is a domestic business, the person's consent is unnecessary.
AnswerA. The person's consent must be obtained in advance.

The principle is that providing personal data to a third party requires the person's prior consent. Whether the recipient is domestic, whether notice is given afterwards, and the number of items provided are none of them grounds for dispensing with consent. Exceptions, such as cases based on laws and regulations, are individually specified by law.

Q43 | Virus creation offense

Which law punishes the act of creating a computer virus without legitimate reason and providing it to others?

  1. The Penal Code, under the offense concerning electromagnetic records of unauthorized commands
  2. The Basic Act on Cybersecurity
  3. The Act on the Protection of Personal Information
  4. The Act on Prohibition of Unauthorized Computer Access
AnswerA. The Penal Code, under the offense concerning electromagnetic records of unauthorized commands

Creating, providing, acquiring, or storing viruses is punished under the Japanese Penal Code (Keiho) as the offense concerning electromagnetic records of unauthorized commands. The Act on Prohibition of Unauthorized Computer Access covers network-based acts such as impersonation logins, the Act on the Protection of Personal Information covers the handling of personal information, and the Basic Act on Cybersecurity is a law establishing the national framework.

Q44 | Computer fraud

Which act is covered by the Penal Code offense of computer fraud?

  1. Acquiring and storing a computer virus without legitimate reason
  2. Feeding false information or unauthorized commands to a computer to create data and obtain financial gain
  3. Destroying computers or storage media to obstruct another person's business
  4. Using another person's ID and password without permission to log in to their computer over a network
AnswerB. Feeding false information or unauthorized commands to a computer to create data and obtain financial gain

The offense of computer fraud punishes obtaining unlawful financial gain by improperly manipulating data. Obstruction by destruction falls under the offense of obstruction of business by damaging a computer, unauthorized login violates the Act on Prohibition of Unauthorized Computer Access, and storing viruses falls under the offense concerning electromagnetic records of unauthorized commands; each is a separate provision.

Q45 | Cybersecurity Basic Act

Which of the following appropriately describes the Basic Act on Cybersecurity?

  1. It sets out the acquisition, use, and provision obligations that businesses handling personal information must observe.
  2. It sets out the basic principles of the national cybersecurity strategy and the responsibilities of the state, critical infrastructure operators, and others.
  3. It sets out liability for compensation for harm caused by defects in manufactured products.
  4. It prohibits impersonation logins using another person's ID without permission and provides for punishing violators.
AnswerB. It sets out the basic principles of the national cybersecurity strategy and the responsibilities of the state, critical infrastructure operators, and others.

Japan's Basic Act on Cybersecurity (Cyber Security Kihon-ho) is a law that sets out the national basic principles, the responsibilities of the parties concerned, and the framework of measures. Prohibiting impersonation logins is the Act on Prohibition of Unauthorized Computer Access, the handling of personal information is the Act on the Protection of Personal Information, and liability for defects is the Product Liability Act; their purposes differ.

Q46 | Dispatch vs contract

Which of the following statements about the difference between worker dispatching and contracting for work is appropriate?

  1. The employment contract with a dispatched worker is concluded not with the dispatching agency but with the client company.
  2. The client of a dispatch may direct the dispatched workers, but in contracting for work the ordering party may not direct the contractor's workers.
  3. In contracting for work, the ordering party is allowed to directly instruct the contractor's workers day by day on procedures and how to proceed.
  4. In contracting for work, the responsibility for completing the work is borne by the ordering party, not the contractor.
AnswerB. The client of a dispatch may direct the dispatched workers, but in contracting for work the ordering party may not direct the contractor's workers.

The biggest difference between the two lies in the chain of command: the client of a dispatch may directly instruct the dispatched workers, whereas in contracting the contractor gives the instructions. A dispatched worker's employer is the dispatching agency, and if the ordering party gives direct instructions it becomes disguised contracting. The responsibility for completing the work is borne by the contractor.

Q47 | Double dispatching

Regarding worker dispatching, which act is prohibited by law?

  1. The dispatching agency concludes a worker dispatch contract with the client company that will receive the workers.
  2. The dispatching agency concludes an employment contract with the workers it sends out.
  3. The client company instructs the dispatched workers it has received on their daily work.
  4. The client company sends the dispatched workers it has received on to yet another company to work.
AnswerD. The client company sends the dispatched workers it has received on to yet another company to work.

Double dispatching, sending received dispatched workers on to yet another company, is prohibited because it obscures who bears responsibility for employment and for workers' safety. The employment contract between agency and worker, work instructions by the client, and the dispatch contract between agency and client are all normal forms of worker dispatching.

Q48 | Article 36 agreement

Which procedure is required in order to have employees work overtime beyond statutory working hours?

  1. Conclude a labor-management agreement under Article 36 and file it with the Labor Standards Inspection Office.
  2. State in the work rules that overtime work may be required for business reasons.
  3. Obtain verbal consent individually from each employee concerned.
  4. State in the employment contract that premium wages will be paid.
AnswerA. Conclude a labor-management agreement under Article 36 and file it with the Labor Standards Inspection Office.

To have employees work overtime or on holidays, a labor-management agreement based on Article 36 of Japan's Labor Standards Act (Rodo Kijun-ho), the so-called saburoku agreement, must be concluded and filed with the Labor Standards Inspection Office. A statement in the work rules, verbal consent, or a premium-wage clause alone provides no lawful basis for work beyond statutory hours.

Q49 | Subcontract act rename

Under the amendment taking effect on January 1, 2026, what did the law formerly known as the Subcontract Act become named?

  1. The Consumer Contract Act
  2. The SME Commissioned Transactions Fairness Act
  3. The Small and Medium-sized Enterprise Basic Act
  4. The Antimonopoly Act
AnswerB. The SME Commissioned Transactions Fairness Act

Japan's Subcontract Act, formally the Act against Delay in Payment of Subcontract Proceeds (Shitauke-ho), was amended and from January 1, 2026 became the SME Commissioned Transactions Fairness Act (Chusho Jutaku Torihiki Tekiseika-ho, abbreviated Toritekiho). At the same time, main contractors came to be called commissioning businesses and subcontractors SME commissioned businesses. The other three all exist as separate laws.

Q50 | New regulations

Which regulation was newly added by the SME Commissioned Transactions Fairness Act that took effect on January 1, 2026?

  1. Obliging SME commissioned businesses to list their shares publicly.
  2. Lowering the corporate tax rate applied to commissioning businesses.
  3. Obliging all transaction records to be kept for 10 years.
  4. Prohibiting payment of the price by promissory note as a means of payment.
AnswerD. Prohibiting payment of the price by promissory note as a means of payment.

The amendment added, among other things, a prohibition on paying the price by promissory note, a prohibition on unilaterally fixing the price when the commissioned side has requested consultation, and restrictions on unilaterally imposing bank transfer fees. Tax rates, public share listings, and 10-year record retention are not matters this law provides for.

Q51 | Antimonopoly Act

Which act is prohibited by the Antimonopoly Act?

  1. Setting your own product's price lower than competitors', within a range not below cost.
  2. Several competing companies conferring and fixing their selling prices at the same level.
  3. Filing a patent application for technology you developed to prevent imitation by other companies.
  4. Negotiating a discount in exchange for purchasing in bulk, lowering the unit purchase price.
AnswerB. Several competing companies conferring and fixing their selling prices at the same level.

A cartel, in which several businesses agree on prices or production volumes, obstructs fair competition and is prohibited by Japan's Antimonopoly Act (Dokusen Kinshi-ho). Price cuts that stay above cost, patent filings, and unit-price reductions through purchasing negotiations are all ordinary competitive activities and are not illegal.

Q52 | Product liability

Which of the following is an appropriate statement about the Product Liability Act?

  1. Defects in intangible software itself are also always covered by this law.
  2. In addition to the product having a defect, the victim must also prove intent or negligence on the manufacturer's part.
  3. Compensation covers only damage to property, and bodily harm is excluded.
  4. When damage arises from a defect in a product, compensation can be claimed without proving the manufacturer's negligence.
AnswerD. When damage arises from a defect in a product, compensation can be claimed without proving the manufacturer's negligence.

Japan's Product Liability Act (Seizobutsu Sekinin-ho, the PL Act) allows compensation to be claimed by showing the causal link between the product's defect and the damage, without proving the manufacturer's intent or negligence. It covers manufactured or processed movable property, and harm to life, body, and property is covered, so the other statements are all wrong.

Q53 | Cooling-off

Which system allows a consumer who contracted through door-to-door sales to cancel the contract unconditionally within a fixed period from the day of receiving the statutory documents?

  1. Opt-out
  2. Recall
  3. Leaseback
  4. Cooling-off
AnswerD. Cooling-off

Cooling-off is the system, recognized by Japan's Act on Specified Commercial Transactions and other laws, that allows unconditional cancellation of a contract within a fixed period. A recall is the retrieval or repair of defective products, opt-out is a method of stopping provision at the person's request, and a leaseback is a transaction of leasing back an asset that was sold; each is a different system.

Q54 | Standards bodies

Which organization develops technical specifications for the Web, such as HTML and CSS?

  1. IEEE
  2. ISO
  3. JIS
  4. W3C
AnswerD. W3C

The W3C, the World Wide Web Consortium, is the organization that develops specifications for Web technologies such as HTML and CSS. IEEE produces standards in electrical, electronic, and communications fields such as the IEEE 802 series, ISO is a body issuing international standards across a wide range of fields, and JIS is Japan's national standards; their areas of responsibility differ.

Q55 | ISMS standard

Which international standard defines the requirements for an information security management system, an ISMS?

  1. ISO 9001
  2. ISO/IEC 27001
  3. JIS Q 15001
  4. ISO 14001
AnswerB. ISO/IEC 27001

ISO/IEC 27001 is the international standard defining the requirements for an information security management system. ISO 9001 is the management system standard for quality and ISO 14001 for the environment, while JIS Q 15001 is a Japanese standard for personal information protection management systems, used as the certification criterion for the Privacy Mark.

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