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Qualifications · IT Passport Success Lab

Project Management

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Q1 | Projects

Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of the characteristics of a project?

  1. An activity in which the number of participants is limited to one in advance
  2. An activity that is always performed in exchange for payment from customers outside the company
  3. An activity with a defined start and end that produces a unique product or service
  4. An activity that repeats fixed procedures every day with no defined end
AnswerC. An activity with a defined start and end that produces a unique product or service

A project is an activity with temporariness, meaning a defined time limit, and uniqueness, meaning its deliverables differ each time. The first option describes routine work with no end and lacks temporariness. The third is wrong because many projects are internal. The fourth is wrong because no such condition on headcount exists.

Q2 | PM's role

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of a project manager's role?

  1. Only sharing in the actual work of producing the project's deliverables
  2. Deciding how to distribute the profits generated by the project to shareholders
  3. Operating the completed system day to day and responding to user inquiries
  4. Drawing up the project plan, directing its execution, and taking responsibility for achieving its goals
AnswerD. Drawing up the project plan, directing its execution, and taking responsibility for achieving its goals

The project manager plans the project, coordinates staff and budget, manages progress, and is responsible for achieving the QCD goals of quality, cost, and delivery. The second option is the role of project members, the third is the role of operations staff in service management, and the fourth is a matter decided by executives or the shareholders' meeting; none is the PM's role.

Q3 | Stakeholders

Which of the following is the most appropriate description of a project's stakeholders?

  1. Only those in the position of sponsor, the project owner who funds the project
  2. All interested parties who affect or are affected by the project
  3. Only the development members who take part in the project and perform the work
  4. Only the customers who purchase and use the completed deliverables
AnswerB. All interested parties who affect or are affected by the project

Stakeholders, that is, interested parties, broadly include the people and organizations involved in a project and those affected by its outcome, such as members, sponsors, customers, users, and partner companies. The first, second, and fourth options each name only a subset of stakeholders, so their scope is too narrow and they are wrong.

Q4 | WBS

Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of creating a WBS, a work breakdown structure?

  1. To show each task's start and end dates as horizontal bars so that schedule delays can be seen at a glance
  2. To break down the project's work hierarchically and identify all necessary tasks without omission
  3. To diagram the chain of command among the people involved in the project
  4. To show the sequence of tasks with arrows and find the shortest overall duration
AnswerB. To break down the project's work hierarchically and identify all necessary tasks without omission

A WBS is a diagram that progressively decomposes deliverables and work from large blocks into finer pieces, preventing omissions and providing the basis for effort estimation and task assignment. The first option describes a Gantt chart, the second an arrow diagram, and the third an organization chart; none of these is the purpose of a WBS.

Q5 | Scope

Which of the following is the most appropriate activity of project scope management?

  1. Evaluating and selecting candidate contractors and concluding contracts
  2. Defining the deliverables to be produced and the range of work required, and managing changes to them
  3. Totaling members' working hours and calculating total personnel costs
  4. Adding up the duration of each task to set the overall completion date
AnswerB. Defining the deliverables to be produced and the range of work required, and managing changes to them

Scope management clarifies what will and will not be built and prevents scope creep, the uncontrolled expansion of the work. The first option belongs to cost management, the third to schedule management, and the fourth to procurement management, so they cover different areas.

Q6 | Resource management

Among the areas covered by project management, which mainly deals with securing the necessary staff and developing and managing the team?

  1. Scope management
  2. Procurement management
  3. Communications management
  4. Resource management
AnswerD. Resource management

Resource management is the area that estimates and secures the required amount of resources such as people, equipment, and materials, and develops and manages the team. Scope covers defining the range of work, procurement covers managing external purchases and outsourcing, and communications covers distributing and sharing information; none of them deals with securing and developing staff itself.

Q7 | Change control

During development, the customer requested an additional feature. Which of the following is the most appropriate response by the project manager?

  1. Regardless of its content, postpone everything to maintenance work after the project ends
  2. Since keeping to the plan comes first, refuse all requests and proceed exactly as originally planned
  3. Since it is a customer request, have the person in charge reflect it in the development immediately at their own discretion
  4. Assess the request's impact on schedule, cost, and quality, obtain the stakeholders' approval, and then reflect it in the plan
AnswerD. Assess the request's impact on schedule, cost, and quality, obtain the stakeholders' approval, and then reflect it in the plan

Change requests are handled through the change control procedure of integration management: their impact is analyzed, approval or rejection is decided, and only approved changes are reflected in the plan. The first option invites scope creep, the uncontrolled expansion of work. The second and fourth judge uniformly without assessing impact and cannot take in necessary changes, so they are not appropriate.

Q8 | Arrow diagram

Which of the following can be represented and determined using an arrow diagram, a PERT chart?

  1. The structure of work broken down hierarchically from the deliverables
  2. The sequence of tasks and the path that determines the overall duration
  3. The cost breakdown of each task and the state of budget consumption
  4. The chain of command of the project organization
AnswerB. The sequence of tasks and the path that determines the overall duration

An arrow diagram represents tasks as arrows and their boundaries as nodes to show task sequence, and it is used to find the shortest overall duration and the critical path. The first option is a budget management table, the third an organization chart, and the fourth what a WBS represents; none is the purpose of an arrow diagram.

Q9 | Shortest duration

A project has only the following three paths of work. What is the minimum number of days needed to finish all the work? Path 1: A(4 days) to B(6 days) to F(3 days). Path 2: A(4 days) to C(5 days) to D(4 days) to F(3 days). Path 3: A(4 days) to E(8 days) to F(3 days).

  1. 18 days
  2. 15 days
  3. 13 days
  4. 16 days
AnswerD. 16 days

The durations are 4+6+3=13 days for path 1, 4+5+4+3=16 days for path 2, and 4+8+3=15 days for path 3. The project is not complete until every path finishes, so the minimum duration is that of the longest path, 16 days. 13 days is path 1's value, 15 days is path 3's, and 18 days matches no path's total.

Q10 | Critical path

A project has only the following three paths of work. Which is the critical path? Path 1: A(3 days) to B(7 days) to E(4 days). Path 2: A(3 days) to C(5 days) to E(4 days). Path 3: A(3 days) to D(2 days) to F(6 days) to E(4 days).

  1. A to D to F to E
  2. A to C to E
  3. All three paths take the same number of days, so no critical path exists
  4. A to B to E
AnswerA. A to D to F to E

The durations are 3+7+4=14 days for path 1, 3+5+4=12 days for path 2, and 3+2+6+4=15 days for path 3. The critical path is the path with the longest duration, so path 3, A to D to F to E, at 15 days is the answer. Paths 1 and 2 are shorter and have slack, and their durations also differ from each other, so the third option is wrong as well.

Q11 | Float

A project has only the following two paths of work. By how many days at most can task B be delayed without delaying the completion date of the whole project? Path 1: A(5 days) to B(4 days) to D(6 days). Path 2: A(5 days) to C(8 days) to D(6 days).

  1. 2 days
  2. 6 days
  3. 4 days
  4. 0 days, meaning it cannot be delayed even one day
AnswerC. 4 days

Path 1 takes 5+4+6=15 days and path 2 takes 5+8+6=19 days, so the overall duration is the longer one, 19 days. Path 1, which contains task B, has 19−15=4 days of float, so B can be delayed up to 4 days without affecting the whole. A 5-day delay would make path 1 take 20 days and push back completion. The fourth option describes a task on the critical path.

Q12 | Shortening

A project has only the following two paths of work. When the duration of task C is shortened by 3 days, what does the shortest overall project duration become? Path 1: A(6 days) to B(4 days) to D(5 days). Path 2: A(6 days) to C(9 days) to D(5 days).

  1. 20 days
  2. 17 days
  3. 18 days
  4. 15 days
AnswerB. 17 days

Before shortening, path 1 takes 6+4+5=15 days and path 2 takes 6+9+5=20 days, so the overall duration is 20 days. Reducing C from 9 days to 6 days makes path 2 take 6+6+5=17 days, which is still longer than path 1's 15 days, so the overall duration becomes 17 days. 20 days is the value before shortening, and 15 days is a mistake that looks only at path 1, which cannot hold because path 2 still needs 17 days.

Q13 | Earliest start

Task D cannot start until both task B and task C are complete. B and C can start at the same time after task A finishes, and the durations are 3 days for A, 4 days for B, and 7 days for C. Counting from the start of the project, what is the earliest day on which task D can start?

  1. After 7 days
  2. After 14 days
  3. After 3 days
  4. After 10 days
AnswerD. After 10 days

A finishes after 3 days; from there B takes 4 days, finishing after 7 days, and C takes 7 days, finishing after 10 days. D needs both B and C to finish, so its earliest start is after 10 days, matching the later one, C. After 7 days is a mistake that looks only at B, after 14 days mistakenly adds B and C in series, and after 3 days is merely when A finishes.

Q14 | Gantt chart

Which diagram shows each task's start and end dates as horizontal bars and is used to grasp progress by placing plan and actual side by side?

  1. Cause-and-effect diagram
  2. Gantt chart
  3. Arrow diagram
  4. WBS
AnswerB. Gantt chart

A Gantt chart puts tasks on the vertical axis and dates on the horizontal axis, showing each task's period as a horizontal bar; it suits progress management by comparing plan with actual. A WBS is a hierarchical breakdown of work, an arrow diagram shows task sequence and durations, and a cause-and-effect diagram organizes the relationship between an outcome and its causes.

Q15 | Function points

Which of the following appropriately describes estimation by the function point method?

  1. Estimating effort for each task broken down in the WBS and summing them up for the total
  2. Estimating size from the number and complexity of functions visible to users, such as inputs, outputs, inquiries, and files
  3. Predicting the number of lines of the program to be written and deriving effort from productivity per line
  4. Roughly estimating size and effort based on the results of similar past projects
AnswerB. Estimating size from the number and complexity of functions visible to users, such as inputs, outputs, inquiries, and files

The function point method counts the functions visible to users and weights them by complexity to quantify software size. The first option describes analogous estimation, the second bottom-up estimation, and the third estimation based on lines of code, LOC; each is a different technique.

Q16 | Estimation methods

Which technique estimates the effort of the current project based on actual data from similar projects carried out in the past?

  1. Function point method
  2. Bottom-up estimation
  3. Delphi method
  4. Analogous estimation
AnswerD. Analogous estimation

Analogous estimation takes the results of similar past projects as its basis and adjusts for differences in scale; it suits rough estimates early in planning when information is scarce. Bottom-up estimation accumulates detailed tasks, the function point method calculates from the amount of functionality, and the Delphi method is a forecasting technique that anonymously converges the opinions of multiple experts.

Q17 | Risk avoidance

Among risk responses, which is an example of avoidance?

  1. Taking out insurance against losses from fire
  2. Taking no particular measures because the impact is small, and dealing with the risk if it occurs
  3. Duplicating servers to reduce the impact when a failure occurs
  4. Dropping the adoption of an unproven new technology and changing the plan to use a technology the team has experience with
AnswerD. Dropping the adoption of an unproven new technology and changing the plan to use a technology the team has experience with

Avoidance removes the source of the risk itself so that the project is no longer exposed to it. The first option is transfer, shifting the burden of loss to a third party; the second is mitigation, reducing probability or impact; and the fourth is acceptance, taking the risk without countermeasures; none of these is avoidance.

Q18 | Risk transfer

Among risk responses, which is an example of transfer?

  1. Excluding a high-risk feature from the current development scope
  2. Strengthening member training to lower the rate of work errors
  3. Taking out insurance to prepare for damages claims caused by system failures
  4. Proceeding with the plan without countermeasures because the probability of occurrence is extremely low
AnswerC. Taking out insurance to prepare for damages claims caused by system failures

Transfer shifts the burden of loss, should the risk materialize, to a third party such as an insurance company or an external contractor. The second option is avoidance, cutting off the source of the risk; the third is mitigation, lowering the probability; and the fourth is acceptance, taking the risk without countermeasures.

Q19 | Risk acceptance

In a project, for a risk with both low probability and small impact, the team deliberately spent no money on countermeasures and decided to deal with it if it occurs. Which risk response does this correspond to?

  1. Mitigation
  2. Acceptance
  3. Transfer
  4. Avoidance
AnswerB. Acceptance

Accepting a risk as it is, for example when the cost of countermeasures does not match the expected loss, is called acceptance, also known as retention. Avoidance removes the source of the risk, transfer shifts the burden of loss to a third party, and mitigation takes measures to reduce probability or impact; all of these take some action, which distinguishes them from acceptance.

Q20 | Quality management

Which of the following is the most appropriate activity of project quality management?

  1. Organizing task sequences and durations to set the overall completion date
  2. Recording and managing members' overtime daily to keep total personnel costs within budget
  3. Sending requests for proposals to candidate companies and obtaining and comparing proposals and quotations
  4. Setting the quality criteria the deliverables must meet and verifying through reviews and tests that they are met
AnswerD. Setting the quality criteria the deliverables must meet and verifying through reviews and tests that they are met

Quality management consists of planning, which sets quality goals and criteria; assurance, which confirms that work follows the defined procedures; and control, which inspects deliverables and corrects them. The first option belongs to cost management, the third to schedule management, and the fourth to procurement management, so they cover different areas.

Q21 | Procurement

When outsourcing system development, which document is presented to several candidate companies, showing the requirements and preconditions and asking them to propose implementation approaches and costs?

  1. SLA, a service level agreement
  2. WBS, a work breakdown structure
  3. RFI, a request for information
  4. RFP, a request for proposal
AnswerD. RFP, a request for proposal

An RFP is the document used in selecting a contractor: it presents the requirements and preconditions and requests concrete proposals and quotations. An RFI asks for information about products and technologies at the stage before narrowing down candidates, an SLA is an agreement setting service quality levels, and a WBS is a hierarchical breakdown of work; none is used to request proposals.

Q22 | Communications

Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of project communications management?

  1. Reviewing the order of tasks to shorten the overall duration
  2. Ensuring that necessary information reliably reaches the right people at the right time and in the right format
  3. Finding defects contained in deliverables through inspection and correcting them
  4. Purchasing the equipment used in the project as cheaply as possible
AnswerB. Ensuring that necessary information reliably reaches the right people at the right time and in the right format

Communications management plans what information each stakeholder needs and the means and frequency of delivery, and distributes and shares information through meetings and reports to prevent misunderstandings. The second option is the purpose of procurement management, the third of quality management, and the fourth of schedule management; none is the purpose of communications.

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