What is the retention period for medical records (shinryōroku) under the Medical Practitioners Act (医師法)?
2 years
5 years
10 years
3 years
AnswerB. 5 years
Under Article 24 of Japan's Medical Practitioners Act (医師法), medical records must be retained for 5 years (for insured care, the Rules on Medical Care Benefits set the retention period at 5 years from the date of completion). 2 years is the retention period for other records related to care at a hospital (nursing records, X-ray films, etc.) under the Medical Care Act (医療法) and its enforcement regulations; 3 years is the retention period for ledgers, etc. under the Rules on Medical Care Benefits; there is no 10-year requirement.
Q2 | Retention of other records
Under the Medical Care Act (医療法) and its enforcement regulations, what is the retention period for the "records related to care" (nursing records, operation records, X-ray films, etc.) that a hospital must keep?
10 years
5 years
2 years
1 year
AnswerC. 2 years
Under the Medical Care Act (医療法) and its enforcement regulations, a hospital's records related to care (the hospital day book, prescriptions, operation records, nursing records, test findings, X-ray films, etc.) must be retained for 2 years. 5 years is the retention period for medical records under the Medical Practitioners Act, and the differing legal basis and period between these records and medical records is a point often tested. There is no 1-year or 10-year requirement.
Q3 | SOAP
In a SOAP-format progress note, what is recorded under O (Objective)?
The plan for future treatment and testing
Evaluation and consideration of the information obtained
Objective information such as examination findings and test results
Subjective information such as complaints from the patient or family
AnswerC. Objective information such as examination findings and test results
O stands for Objective information, recording facts observed or measured by the healthcare provider, such as examination findings and test results. Subjective information such as the patient's complaints is S (Subjective), evaluation and consideration is A (Assessment), and the plan is P (Plan). SOAP is the standard format for writing progress notes in the POMR.
Q4 | POMR
Which is incorrect about the problem-oriented medical record (POMR)?
It is a recording method based on the concept of the POS (problem-oriented system)
It consists of the database, problem list, initial plan, and progress notes
Records are organized by each clinical department's revenue
Progress notes are written in SOAP format
AnswerC. Records are organized by each clinical department's revenue
The POMR is a method that organizes records around each of the patient's medical problems, so the statement that records are organized by each department's revenue is incorrect. Based on the concept of the POS, it consists of the database (basic data such as the patient's basic information), problem list, initial plan, and progress notes, and the progress notes are written in SOAP format.
Q5 | Discharge summary
Which is correct about the discharge summary?
A record summarizing the course, treatment, and outcome during hospitalization
A document the patient prepares themselves before admission
A financial document summarizing the hospital's accounting
A ledger in which a pharmacy records the content of dispensing
AnswerA. A record summarizing the course, treatment, and outcome during hospitalization
The discharge summary is a record in which the physician summarizes the course of care, treatment content, and outcome during hospitalization; it is used for continuity of care in outpatient clinics and referral institutions and for audits and statistics, and is completed after a countersignature (approval). It is not a document the patient prepares, a dispensing ledger, or a financial document.
Q6 | Auditing records
Which is correct about auditing medical records?
A quantitative audit evaluates formal aspects such as whether required records and signatures are present, and a qualitative audit evaluates the appropriateness of the content recorded
Auditing covers only what is recorded in the electronic medical record; paper records are excluded
Auditing is done only by administrative authorities and is not performed in-house, such as by the health information management department
A qualitative audit means evaluating by counting the number of records that are complete
AnswerA. A quantitative audit evaluates formal aspects such as whether required records and signatures are present, and a qualitative audit evaluates the appropriateness of the content recorded
Auditing medical records includes a quantitative audit, which checks whether the required documents, entries, and signatures are complete, and a qualitative audit, which checks whether the content is appropriate in terms of quality of care. Auditing is also performed in-house, such as by the health information management department. A qualitative audit is not about counting the number of records, and records are audited regardless of whether they are on paper or electronic.
Q7 | Outcome
Which is not included in the "outcome" categories that represent the result of care?
Cure
Death
Chief complaint
Improvement
AnswerC. Chief complaint
Outcome is a category representing the result of care, including cure, improvement, remission, no change, worsening, death, and discontinuation. The chief complaint is the main symptom the patient reports at the visit; it is information recorded at the start of care and is not an outcome category.
Q8 | Patient's own records
Which is a health record that is issued to and kept by the patient themselves?
The anesthesia record
The medication notebook
The operation record
The physician's order sheet
AnswerB. The medication notebook
The medication notebook is a record of dispensed medication history that the patient carries with them, and it is one of the health records — along with the maternal and child health handbook and health checkup records — issued to the patient. The order sheet, operation record, and anesthesia record are in-house medical records created and kept by the healthcare institution, not records kept by the patient.
Q9 | Authenticity of records
From the standpoint of the authenticity of medical records, which is an appropriate way to correct an error in a paper medical record?
Overwrite the original entry in pencil so no one can tell who made the correction
Discard the page with the error and rewrite the content on a new sheet to replace it
Correct it with a double line so the original entry remains legible, and make clear who corrected it and when
Completely erase the original entry with correction fluid, then rewrite the correct content
AnswerC. Correct it with a double line so the original entry remains legible, and make clear who corrected it and when
Medical records must have authenticity — it must be clear who recorded or corrected what and when, and tampering must be prevented. For paper records, it is appropriate to correct with a method such as a double line that keeps the original entry legible, and to make clear who corrected it and when. Erasing with correction fluid, discarding the page, or overwriting anonymously in pencil destroys the original entry or the accountability for it and undermines authenticity.
Q10 | ICD
Which is correct about the ICD (International Classification of Diseases)?
It refers to the K codes representing surgery in Japan's medical fee schedule
It refers to JLAC10, Japan's domestic standard code for clinical laboratory test items
An international classification of diseases established by the WHO, used for cause-of-death and disease statistics
It is the specification for the GS1 barcodes used to distribute drugs and medical materials
AnswerC. An international classification of diseases established by the WHO, used for cause-of-death and disease statistics
The ICD is the WHO's international classification of diseases, forming the basis for international comparison of cause-of-death and disease statistics; Japan's statistics are also currently based on ICD-10. The surgery codes in the medical fee schedule are K codes, the barcodes for distributing drugs and other items are GS1 codes, and the domestic standard code for clinical laboratory test items is JLAC10 — none of which describes the ICD.
Q11 | ICD-11
Which is correct about the revisions of the ICD?
ICD-11 is a domestic standard developed by the Japan Association for Medical Informatics and is unrelated to the WHO
ICD-10 has never been used in Japan; an original classification has been used instead
Japan's cause-of-death and disease statistics currently follow ICD-10, and the WHO has adopted ICD-11
ICD-11 was adopted before ICD-10 and is an older classification no longer in use
AnswerC. Japan's cause-of-death and disease statistics currently follow ICD-10, and the WHO has adopted ICD-11
Japan's cause-of-death and disease statistics are currently compiled using a statistical classification based on ICD-10, and the WHO adopted its revision, ICD-11, in 2019 (effective 2022; Japan is still preparing for domestic application). ICD-11 is a newer revision than ICD-10. The ICD is the WHO's international classification, not a domestic standard developed by a Japanese academic society.
Q12 | Standard disease name master
Which is correct about the ICD-10-based Standard Disease Name Master?
A master representing the imaging site and conditions of imaging tests, used in radiology department systems
A standard master of disease names mapped to ICD-10, used in electronic medical records and electronic claims processing
A master used for the logistics management of medical materials, used in inventory management and ordering systems
A standard master mapping surgical procedures to medical fee schedule codes, used in operation records
AnswerB. A standard master of disease names mapped to ICD-10, used in electronic medical records and electronic claims processing
The ICD-10-based Standard Disease Name Master is a standard master that maps disease names to ICD-10 codes and the like; it is maintained by the Medical Information System Development Center (MEDIS-DC) and is widely used in electronic medical records and electronic claims processing systems. It is not a master for surgical procedures, imaging conditions, or the logistics of medical materials.
Q13 | DPC
Which is correct about DPC (diagnosis procedure combination)?
The DPC code has 14 digits, with the first 6 digits representing the disease name
DPC/PDPS is a payment system based solely on fee-for-service
The DPC code is generated automatically from the patient's name
A classification used for managing outpatient appointment reservations
AnswerA. The DPC code has 14 digits, with the first 6 digits representing the disease name
The DPC code has 14 digits, with the first 6 digits representing the disease name (the first 2 digits are the major diagnostic category, MDC, and the following 4 digits are the sub-classification), and the remaining digits represent surgery, procedures, and the like. DPC is a diagnosis procedure combination classification for acute inpatient care, not a classification for outpatient appointment management. The code is determined from the diagnosis and care provided, not generated from the patient's name. DPC/PDPS is a per-day bundled payment system.
Q14 | Surgery code
Which code represents surgery in the medical fee schedule?
K code
HOT code
J code
JLAC10
AnswerA. K code
In the medical fee schedule, surgery is represented by K codes (the classification numbers starting with K). J codes, in the same fee schedule, represent procedures. The HOT code is the code of MEDIS-DC's standard drug master, and JLAC10 is the standard code for clinical laboratory test items; neither is a surgery code.
Q15 | Laboratory test code
Which is the standard code for clinical laboratory test items?
JLAC10
K code
GS1-128
ICD-O-3
AnswerA. JLAC10
JLAC10 is the standard code for clinical laboratory test items, used for sharing and aggregating test results between facilities (LOINC is the equivalent international standard). ICD-O-3 classifies tumors, GS1-128 is a barcode symbology for drugs and medical materials, and the K code is the surgery code in the medical fee schedule; none is a clinical laboratory test item code.
Q16 | RCT
Which is correct about the randomized controlled trial (RCT)?
An interventional study that randomly assigns participants to an intervention group and a control group for comparison
A study in which the researcher makes no intervention and only observes the course
A study that compares past exposure retrospectively between a group with the disease and a group without it
A study that examines exposure and disease status simultaneously at a single point in time
AnswerA. An interventional study that randomly assigns participants to an intervention group and a control group for comparison
An RCT is an interventional study that randomly assigns participants to an intervention group and a control group to compare effects; random allocation reduces bias (confounding) in the background characteristics between groups. Examining at a single point in time describes a cross-sectional study, tracing past exposure from disease status describes a case-control study, and making no intervention describes an observational study.
Q17 | Case-control study
Which is correct about the case-control study?
A study that uses only population-level statistical data, not individual data, to examine associations
An interventional study that randomly assigns participants to 2 groups to compare treatment effects
A prospective study that follows an exposed group and an unexposed group forward in time and compares the occurrence of disease
A retrospective observational study that selects a group with the disease and a group without it and compares past exposure between them
AnswerD. A retrospective observational study that selects a group with the disease and a group without it and compares past exposure between them
A case-control study is a retrospective observational study that first selects a group with the disease (cases) and a group without it (controls), then compares their past exposure; it uses the odds ratio as its measure and is suited to studying rare diseases. Random allocation is used in RCTs, following forward in time is a cohort study, and using population-level data is an ecological study.
Q18 | Cohort study
Which is correct about the cohort study?
An interventional study in which the researcher randomly assigns a new treatment to participants to compare effects
It observes only people who have the disease, with no comparison group
A study completed with a single survey at one point in time, with no follow-up of participants
It follows an exposed group and an unexposed group to compare the occurrence of disease, allowing the relative risk to be calculated
AnswerD. It follows an exposed group and an unexposed group to compare the occurrence of disease, allowing the relative risk to be calculated
A cohort study is a prospective observational study that follows a group exposed to a factor and a group not exposed forward in time and compares the occurrence (incidence) of disease, allowing the relative risk to be calculated directly. Not following participants describes a cross-sectional study, assigning treatment describes an RCT (interventional study), and a cohort study does set up comparison groups — the exposed and unexposed groups.
Q19 | Evidence
Which is generally considered to have the highest level of evidence?
A systematic review/meta-analysis integrating multiple RCTs
An individual expert's opinion based on experience, without systematic review
A single case-control study comparing past exposure retrospectively
A case report summarizing the course of a single patient
AnswerA. A systematic review/meta-analysis integrating multiple RCTs
Evidence level is generally highest for a systematic review/meta-analysis that systematically integrates multiple RCTs, followed in descending order by individual RCTs, cohort studies, case-control studies, case reports, and expert opinion. An individual expert's opinion and a single case report rank near the bottom of the hierarchy.
Q20 | Confounding factor
Which is a correct description of a confounding factor?
A systematic error arising from equipment malfunction or variability in measurement methods
A study participant dropping out of the study partway through follow-up
Statistical software miscalculating the results and producing incorrect values
A third factor associated with both the exposure and the outcome being studied, creating an apparent association
AnswerD. A third factor associated with both the exposure and the outcome being studied, creating an apparent association
A confounding factor is a third factor that is associated with both the exposure (factor) and the outcome (disease) being studied, creating an apparent association that does not actually exist, or distorting a real association. Random allocation in an RCT and stratified analysis are ways to control for its effect. Error from measurement equipment is measurement bias, and dropping out partway through is a loss-to-follow-up problem, neither of which is the definition of confounding.
Q21 | Research ethics
Which is correct about the ethics of medical research involving human subjects?
Falsifying research data is permissible as long as the conclusion is correct
The Declaration of Helsinki sets out the ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects
A research plan does not need to be reviewed by an ethics review committee
A researcher with a conflict of interest (COI) may conduct the research while concealing that fact
AnswerB. The Declaration of Helsinki sets out the ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects
The Declaration of Helsinki, adopted by the World Medical Association, sets out the ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects and also underlies Japan's ethical guidelines. In principle, a research plan must be reviewed and approved by an ethics review committee (IRB), and a conflict of interest must be disclosed and managed, not concealed. Falsification and fabrication are research misconduct regardless of the conclusion.
Q22 | Opt-out
Which is a correct description of opt-out in research?
A method that notifies participants of the research's existence for the first time after it has ended and asks for their acceptance
A method in which individual written consent is obtained from every participant after explaining the research to them
A method that publicly discloses information about the research and guarantees participants an opportunity to refuse, then uses the information if no refusal is made
A method carried out without informing participants at all and without any public notice
AnswerC. A method that publicly discloses information about the research and guarantees participants an opportunity to refuse, then uses the information if no refusal is made
Opt-out is a method that notifies or publicly discloses information about the research and guarantees participants an opportunity to refuse participation (use of their information), then uses existing information for the research if no refusal is made; it is permitted in certain cases, such as observational research. Obtaining individual consent beforehand is opt-in (informed consent), and methods that give no notice at all, or notify only after the fact, do not meet the requirements of opt-out.
Q23 | Phase of a clinical trial
Which is a correct description of a phase I clinical trial?
A trial on a small number of healthy adults to examine safety and pharmacokinetics
A post-marketing survey of usage results conducted after manufacturing and marketing approval
A trial on a large number of patients that verifies efficacy against a standard treatment
A toxicity study conducted only on animals before administration to humans
AnswerA. A trial on a small number of healthy adults to examine safety and pharmacokinetics
A phase I trial is, in principle, a stage conducted on a small number of healthy adults to examine safety and pharmacokinetics (absorption, excretion, and the like in the body). Verifying efficacy in a large number of patients is a phase III trial, and the post-approval survey is phase IV. A toxicity study on animals is a nonclinical study conducted before entering a clinical trial (a study on human subjects).
Q24 | Median
The lengths of stay for 5 patients were 2, 3, 5, 9, and 100 days. What is the median of this data?
100 days
3 days
23.8 days
5 days
AnswerD. 5 days
The median is the middle value when the data are arranged in ascending order; with 5 data points, it is the 3rd value, 5 days. 23.8 days is the mean of this data, pulled upward by the outlier of 100 days. With data containing an outlier like this, the median better represents the typical value than the mean.
Q25 | P-value and testing
Which is correct about statistical testing?
The p-value itself represents the probability that the treatment is effective
The larger the p-value, the larger the difference, and the result is statistically significant
Testing first sets up the hypothesis ("there is a difference") as the null hypothesis, and examines whether it can be accepted
When the p-value falls below the significance level (e.g., 0.05), the null hypothesis is rejected and the result is judged statistically significant
AnswerD. When the p-value falls below the significance level (e.g., 0.05), the null hypothesis is rejected and the result is judged statistically significant
In testing, the null hypothesis ("there is no difference") is set up, and the probability (p-value) of obtaining the observed result or a more extreme one under the null hypothesis is calculated; if it is below the significance level (conventionally 0.05), the null hypothesis is rejected and the result is judged significant. The p-value is not itself the probability that the treatment is effective, a smaller p-value indicates greater significance, and the null hypothesis is set up as "there is no difference," not "there is a difference."
Q26 | Calculating sensitivity
A test was performed on 1,000 people. Of the 100 people with the disease, 90 tested positive; of the 900 people without the disease, 90 tested positive. What is the sensitivity of this test?
81%
10%
90%
50%
AnswerC. 90%
Sensitivity is the proportion of people with the disease who test positive: 90÷100=90%. Note that specificity is 810÷900=90%, and the positive predictive value is 90÷(90+90)=50%; do not mistake 50% for the sensitivity. 10% corresponds to values such as the false-negative rate or prevalence, and 81% results from a miscalculation.
Q27 | Calculating specificity
Of 200 people with the disease, 160 tested positive and 40 tested negative; of 800 people without the disease, 80 tested positive and 720 tested negative. What is the specificity of this test?
80%
approximately 67%
approximately 95%
90%
AnswerD. 90%
Specificity is the proportion of people without the disease who test negative: 720÷800=90%. 80% is this test's sensitivity (160÷200), approximately 67% is the positive predictive value (160÷240), and approximately 95% is the negative predictive value (720÷760); none of these is the specificity. It is important to check which numerator and denominator apply using a 2×2 table.
Q28 | Calculating the predictive value
A test with 80% sensitivity and 90% specificity was performed on a population of 1,000 people with a 10% prevalence. Which is closest to the positive predictive value?
approximately 47%
approximately 98%
80%
90%
AnswerA. approximately 47%
Of the 100 people with the disease, 100×0.8=80 test positive (true positives); of the 900 people without the disease, 900×0.1=90 test positive (false positives). Positive predictive value = 80÷(80+90) ≈ 47%. Even with 80% sensitivity and 90% specificity, when prevalence is low, false positives increase and the predictive value drops considerably. Approximately 98% is close to the negative predictive value (810÷830).
Q29 | ROC curve
Which is correct about the ROC curve?
A curve drawn by plotting specificity on the vertical axis and sensitivity on the horizontal axis while varying the cutoff value
The smaller the area under the curve (AUC), the higher the discriminative ability of the test
A curve representing the relationship between a test's cost and the time it takes, used to compare efficiency
A curve drawn by plotting sensitivity on the vertical axis and the false positive rate (1 − specificity) on the horizontal axis while varying the cutoff value
AnswerD. A curve drawn by plotting sensitivity on the vertical axis and the false positive rate (1 − specificity) on the horizontal axis while varying the cutoff value
The ROC curve is drawn by varying the test's decision criterion (cutoff value) and plotting sensitivity on the vertical axis and the false positive rate (1 − specificity) on the horizontal axis; the larger the area under the curve (AUC), the higher the test's discriminative ability. A description with the axes reversed, or claiming a smaller AUC is better, is incorrect, and the curve does not represent the relationship between cost and time.
Q30 | Clinical databases
Which is correct about clinical databases?
The NDB is a national database that collects claims information and specific health checkup information
DPC data collects only outpatient data from dental clinics
Reporting to the National Cancer Registry is voluntary for hospitals, with no legal obligation
The NCD (National Clinical Database) is a database of music distribution data
AnswerA. The NDB is a national database that collects claims information and specific health checkup information
The NDB (National Database) is a national database, established under the Act on Assurance of Medical Care for Elderly People, that collects claims information and specific health checkup information and is used for analyzing medical costs and for research. The NCD is a clinical database of surgical cases and the like, centered on surgical societies. Hospitals have a legal obligation to report to the National Cancer Registry under the Cancer Registration Promotion Act. DPC data is data on acute inpatient care from DPC-participating hospitals.
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