Karinoya Learning Room

Qualifications · Healthcare Information Technologist Success Lab

Medicine, Pharmacology, and Testing/Treatment

Read the questions and explanations in English. The lectures (explanatory articles) are available in Japanese only.

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Q1 | Structure of the body

Which is correct about the structure of the human body?

  1. Tissues are units formed by the breakdown of organs and are smaller than cells
  2. Cells with the same function gather to form tissues, and tissues combine to form organs
  3. Organs gather in numbers to form the smaller unit, the cell
  4. A system refers to structures inside a single cell, such as the nucleus and mitochondria
AnswerB. Cells with the same function gather to form tissues, and tissues combine to form organs

The human body is organized in the hierarchy cell → tissue → organ → system. A gathering of cells with the same function is a tissue, and a combination of tissues is an organ. The direction in which organs form cells, or tissue is broken-down organ, is reversed and wrong. A system is a unit of cooperating organs, like the circulatory system, not the internal structure of a cell.

Q2 | Insulin

Which organ secretes insulin, the hormone that lowers blood glucose?

  1. The pancreas
  2. The thyroid
  3. The adrenal glands
  4. The liver
AnswerA. The pancreas

Insulin is secreted from the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas and works to lower blood glucose; deficiency of its secretion or action is the essence of diabetes. The liver stores and metabolizes glucose but does not secrete insulin. The thyroid secretes thyroid hormone, and the adrenal glands secrete cortical and medullary hormones.

Q3 | Myocardial infarction

Which is correct about diseases of the circulatory system?

  1. Myocardial infarction is a disease in which coronary artery blockage causes death of heart muscle
  2. Hypertension is a state in which blood pressure is lower than normal
  3. Mammography is used to treat arrhythmias
  4. Angina pectoris is a state in which a coronary artery is completely blocked and the heart muscle has died
AnswerA. Myocardial infarction is a disease in which coronary artery blockage causes death of heart muscle

Myocardial infarction is a disease in which a coronary artery supplying the heart muscle becomes blocked and the muscle beyond it dies. Angina pectoris involves narrowed coronary arteries causing transient ischemia without necrosis, which distinguishes it from infarction. Arrhythmias are treated with pacemakers and ablation, while mammography is a breast X-ray examination. Hypertension is a state of high blood pressure.

Q4 | Respiratory diseases

Which is incorrect about the respiratory system?

  1. The respiratory system consists of the trachea, bronchi, alveoli, and related structures
  2. The main cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is bacterial infection
  3. Gas exchange takes place in the alveoli
  4. Bronchial asthma is a disease of repeated attacks in which the airways narrow
AnswerB. The main cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is bacterial infection

The main cause of COPD is years of smoking, so the claim that bacterial infection is the main cause is wrong. Long-term inhalation of harmful substances such as tobacco smoke damages the airways and lungs, making it hard to exhale. That gas exchange occurs in the alveoli, that asthma involves repeated airway-narrowing attacks, and that the respiratory system consists of trachea, bronchi, and alveoli are all correct.

Q5 | H. pylori

Which is correct about Helicobacter pylori?

  1. A cell that carries oxygen in the blood
  2. A virus that infects the alveoli and causes pneumonia
  3. A bacterium associated with the development of gastric and duodenal ulcers and gastric cancer
  4. It lives only in the large intestine and is established as the cause of ulcerative colitis
AnswerC. A bacterium associated with the development of gastric and duodenal ulcers and gastric cancer

Helicobacter pylori is a bacterium living in the stomach, known to be associated with gastric and duodenal ulcers and gastric cancer, and eradication therapy is performed. It is not a virus, and its site is neither the alveoli nor the large intestine. Oxygen is carried by red blood cells. Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease of unknown cause, not established as caused by H. pylori.

Q6 | Diabetes

Which is correct about diabetes?

  1. Type 1 diabetes develops solely from lifestyle factors such as overeating and lack of exercise
  2. Diabetes is a disease in which insulin becomes excessive and blood glucose stays chronically low
  3. Type 2 diabetes is closely related to lifestyle and accounts for the great majority of diabetes patients in Japan
  4. The great majority of diabetes patients in Japan are type 1, with type 2 in the minority
AnswerC. Type 2 diabetes is closely related to lifestyle and accounts for the great majority of diabetes patients in Japan

Type 2 diabetes is closely related to lifestyle factors such as overeating and inactivity, and to constitution, and accounts for the great majority of diabetes patients in Japan. Type 1 is the type in which the insulin-secreting cells are destroyed and secretion is largely lost; it is not caused by lifestyle alone, and its patient numbers are far smaller than type 2. Diabetes is a disease of chronically high blood glucose.

Q7 | Blood components

Which is incorrect about the components of blood?

  1. Red blood cells carry oxygen
  2. Platelets carry oxygen
  3. Serum is plasma with the clotting components removed
  4. White blood cells take part in body defense (immunity)
AnswerB. Platelets carry oxygen

The role of platelets is hemostasis, so the statement that they carry oxygen is wrong. Oxygen transport is the work of red blood cells, which contain hemoglobin. White blood cells and lymphocytes take part in defending the body against pathogens. The liquid component of blood is plasma, and plasma with the clotting components removed is serum.

Q8 | Nervous system

Which is incorrect about the nervous system?

  1. The central nervous system includes the cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord
  2. Cerebrovascular disease is a representative disease of the brain and nervous system
  3. The peripheral nervous system includes the autonomic and somatic nerves
  4. The autonomic nerves are classified as part of the central nervous system
AnswerD. The autonomic nerves are classified as part of the central nervous system

The autonomic nerves, together with the somatic nerves, belong to the peripheral nervous system, so classifying them as central is wrong. The central nervous system consists of the cerebrum (frontal, temporal, parietal lobes, and so on), brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord. Cerebrovascular disease and brain tumors are representative diseases of the brain and nervous system, examined with CT, MRA, and the like.

Q9 | Classifying causes

Which is incorrect about the classification of disease causes (etiology)?

  1. Iatrogenic disease is classified as an internal cause
  2. Infection by pathogenic organisms is included among external causes
  3. Chemical and physical external causes are included among external causes
  4. Individual predisposition and congenital predisposition are internal causes
AnswerA. Iatrogenic disease is classified as an internal cause

Iatrogenic disease is harm arising from medical acts such as tests and treatment, and as a factor from outside the body it is classified as an external cause — so calling it internal is wrong. Internal causes are factors on the body's side, such as individual and congenital predisposition. External causes include nutritional, chemical, and physical causes, pathogenic organisms, and iatrogenic disease.

Q10 | Tumors

Which is correct about tumors?

  1. Malignant tumors do not grow autonomously and mostly disappear on their own
  2. Benign tumors infiltrate surrounding tissue and metastasize actively to distant organs
  3. Malignant tumors infiltrate surrounding tissue and can metastasize to distant organs
  4. In the classification of lesions, tumors are treated as a kind of inflammation
AnswerC. Malignant tumors infiltrate surrounding tissue and can metastasize to distant organs

Malignant tumors grow autonomously, infiltrate surrounding tissue, and can metastasize to distant organs via blood and lymph vessels — these are their hallmarks. Benign tumors grow expansively and usually do not metastasize. The claim that malignant tumors disappear naturally is wrong. In lesion classification, tumors (neoplasms) are a category separate from inflammation.

Q11 | ADME

Which is the correct set of the 4 processes making up drug pharmacokinetics (ADME)?

  1. Decomposition, synthesis, storage, and secretion
  2. Ingestion, digestion, absorption, and storage
  3. Absorption, diffusion, deposition, and evaporation
  4. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
AnswerD. Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion

ADME stands for Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion, describing the process by which a drug enters the body, is carried through it, is transformed mainly in the liver, and leaves the body mainly through the kidneys. None of the other options is the correct composition of ADME.

Q12 | Drug metabolism

Which is incorrect about drug pharmacokinetics?

  1. The blood-brain barrier restricts the passage of drugs into the brain
  2. The free (unbound) drug in the blood, not bound to proteins, exerts the pharmacological effect
  3. Drug metabolism takes place mainly in the kidneys
  4. Drugs are excreted mainly through the kidneys into the urine
AnswerC. Drug metabolism takes place mainly in the kidneys

Drug metabolism is carried out mainly by the drug-metabolizing enzymes of the liver, so the statement naming the kidneys is wrong. What the kidneys mainly handle is excretion into the urine. That the blood-brain barrier restricts drug entry into the brain, and that the unbound (free) form exerts the effect, are both correct.

Q13 | OTC drugs

Which is correct about over-the-counter (OTC) drugs?

  1. A physician's prescription is required to buy OTC drugs
  2. Category 2 drugs may be sold only by a physician
  3. Category 3 drugs carry the highest risk
  4. Category 1 drugs may be sold only by a pharmacist
AnswerD. Category 1 drugs may be sold only by a pharmacist

OTC drugs are classified, in descending order of risk, into categories 1, 2, and 3; category 1, with particularly high risk, may be sold only by a pharmacist. The highest risk is category 1, not 3. OTC drugs can be bought without a prescription — the difference from prescription drugs. Categories 2 and 3 may be sold by a pharmacist or a registered salesperson.

Q14 | Generic drugs

Which is correct about generic drugs?

  1. They may be used only in uninsured care and are not permitted under health insurance
  2. Drugs manufactured and sold with the same active ingredient after the original drug's patent term expires
  3. They may be freely manufactured and sold with notification even during the original drug's patent term
  4. Drugs that achieve the same efficacy using an active ingredient different from the original drug
AnswerB. Drugs manufactured and sold with the same active ingredient after the original drug's patent term expires

Generic drugs are manufactured and sold with the same active ingredient and the same indications after the original drug's patent term has expired. The active ingredient is identical to the original, and free manufacture during the patent term is not possible. They can be used in insured care, and their use is promoted to contain healthcare costs.

Q15 | Prescription validity

What is the correct period of validity of a prescription issued under insured care, assuming nothing special is written on it?

  1. Within 30 days including the date of issue
  2. Within 2 days including the date of issue
  3. Within 14 days including the date of issue
  4. Within 4 days including the date of issue
AnswerD. Within 4 days including the date of issue

Unless otherwise noted, the period of use of a prescription is within 4 days including the date of issue (per the notes on the prescription form). It is the window for the patient to bring it to a pharmacy, and dispensing cannot be received on an expired prescription. 2, 14, and 30 days are all wrong.

Q16 | Narcotics licensing

Which is correct about prescribing narcotics?

  1. Narcotics are classified as OTC drugs and can be bought at pharmacies without a prescription
  2. Prescribing narcotics requires only the patient's consent form, and there is no licensing system for practitioners
  3. A physician's license alone, without any separate license, suffices to prescribe narcotics
  4. Only narcotics practitioners licensed by the prefectural governor may prescribe narcotics
AnswerD. Only narcotics practitioners licensed by the prefectural governor may prescribe narcotics

Under the Narcotics and Psychotropics Control Act (麻薬及び向精神薬取締法), only narcotics practitioners licensed by the prefectural governor may administer or prescribe narcotics for the treatment of disease. A physician's license alone is not enough — a separate license is required. Narcotics are not OTC drugs and are handled under strict control. No system allows prescribing on a consent form alone.

Q17 | Nursing classifications

Which is the standard classification system for nursing diagnoses?

  1. NANDA
  2. NOC
  3. NIC
  4. ICD-10
AnswerA. NANDA

NANDA is the classification system for nursing diagnoses. NIC classifies nursing interventions and NOC classifies nursing outcomes, and the 3 are used as a set to standardize the nursing process. ICD-10 is the international statistical classification of diseases and related health problems, not a nursing diagnosis classification.

Q18 | Nursing care intensity

Which is correct about the nursing care intensity measure (看護必要度)?

  1. An indicator measuring outpatient waiting times to evaluate how crowded the clinic is
  2. An indicator evaluating each nurse's work performance, used in personnel appraisal
  3. An indicator of ward floor space and bed counts, unrelated to patient severity
  4. An indicator measuring the amount of nursing inpatients require, used to evaluate facility standards for inpatient fees
AnswerD. An indicator measuring the amount of nursing inpatients require, used to evaluate facility standards for inpatient fees

The nursing care intensity measure (severity and medical/nursing care need) evaluates how much nursing effort and medical intervention each inpatient requires, and is used to evaluate facility standards for inpatient charges such as the basic hospitalization fee. It does not measure ward size, individual nurses' performance, or outpatient waiting times.

Q19 | Specimen tests

Which of the following is classified as a specimen (laboratory) test?

  1. Biochemistry tests
  2. Spirometry (pulmonary function testing)
  3. Electroencephalography
  4. Electrocardiography
AnswerA. Biochemistry tests

Biochemistry tests analyze specimens such as blood and are specimen tests. Electrocardiography, electroencephalography, and spirometry directly measure the patient's body and are classified as physiological function tests. Distinguishing specimen tests from physiological tests is basic to understanding the laboratory department and its system interfaces.

Q20 | HbA1c

What does HbA1c (hemoglobin A1c) reflect?

  1. The average blood glucose state over roughly the past 1 to 2 months
  2. Only the instantaneous blood glucose at the moment of blood sampling
  3. The kidneys' filtration function shown by creatinine
  4. The degree of liver inflammation shown by AST and ALT
AnswerA. The average blood glucose state over roughly the past 1 to 2 months

HbA1c is the proportion of hemoglobin in red blood cells bound to glucose; reflecting the red cell lifespan, it represents the average blood glucose state over roughly the past 1 to 2 months. The glucose level at the time of sampling is shown by the blood glucose test. Liver inflammation is assessed with AST and ALT, and renal filtration with creatinine and eGFR.

Q21 | Tests and organs

Which pairing of a laboratory test item with its main target is incorrect?

  1. Creatinine — liver function
  2. HbA1c — glucose metabolism
  3. AST (GOT) and ALT (GPT) — liver function
  4. CRP — inflammation
AnswerA. Creatinine — liver function

Creatinine is a waste product from muscle excreted by the kidneys, making it an indicator of kidney function, so the pairing with liver function is wrong. When kidney function declines, blood creatinine rises and eGFR falls. AST and ALT for liver function, CRP for inflammation, and HbA1c for glucose metabolism are all correct pairings.

Q22 | CRP

Which is correct about CRP (C-reactive protein)?

  1. It is a test value that rises with inflammation and infection
  2. It reflects the average blood glucose over the past several months
  3. It is used to determine blood type
  4. It is a tumor marker for prostate cancer
AnswerA. It is a test value that rises with inflammation and infection

CRP is a protein whose production in the liver increases with inflammation; it is the representative inflammation marker, rising in infections and inflammatory diseases. Average blood glucose is reflected by HbA1c, blood typing uses ABO and RhD tests, and the prostate tumor marker is PSA — all wrong as descriptions of CRP.

Q23 | Reference ranges

Which is correct about reference ranges in clinical laboratory testing?

  1. The reference range is set to contain about the central 95% of the distribution of healthy people's values
  2. A value outside the reference range by itself always means disease is present
  3. For every test item, a single worldwide value is defined regardless of measurement method
  4. Healthy people's values never fall outside the reference range; everyone falls within it
AnswerA. The reference range is set to contain about the central 95% of the distribution of healthy people's values

The reference range is set so that about the central 95% of healthy people's measured values fall within it. Therefore about 5% of healthy people fall outside it, and deviation from the range does not immediately mean disease. Reference ranges can also differ by measurement method and population, so the claim of a single worldwide value is wrong.

Q24 | Crossmatching

Which is the correct purpose of the crossmatch test?

  1. To confirm the compatibility of donor and recipient blood before transfusion
  2. To measure the average blood glucose over the past 1 to 2 months
  3. To measure vital capacity and the forced expiratory ratio with a spirometer
  4. To screen for tumors using tumor markers
AnswerA. To confirm the compatibility of donor and recipient blood before transfusion

The crossmatch test reacts the donor's and recipient's blood in vitro before transfusion to confirm compatibility — that no harmful transfusion reaction will occur. Together with ABO and RhD typing and irregular antibody screening, it secures transfusion safety. Assessing glucose, screening tumors, and measuring lung function are the roles of other tests.

Q25 | Electrocardiograms

Which is correct about the waves of the electrocardiogram?

  1. The P wave represents excitation of the ventricles
  2. The T wave represents excitation of the atria
  3. The electrocardiogram is a recording of reflected ultrasound
  4. The QRS complex represents excitation of the ventricles
AnswerD. The QRS complex represents excitation of the ventricles

In the electrocardiogram, the QRS complex represents excitation (depolarization) of the ventricles. The P wave represents atrial excitation and the T wave recovery from ventricular excitation, so the swapped statements are wrong. The ECG is a physiological test recording the heart's electrical activity from the body surface, differing in principle from ultrasound examinations, which image reflected sound.

Q26 | Pulmonary function test

Which is correct about spirometry (pulmonary function test)?

  1. It is a test performed by administering a radiopharmaceutical
  2. It is a test in which collected tissue is examined under a microscope
  3. It is a test that records the heart's electrical activity
  4. It measures vital capacity, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and FEV1%
AnswerD. It measures vital capacity, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and FEV1%

Spirometry is a physiological function test that measures the volume and speed of exhaled and inhaled air, yielding vital capacity, forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), and FEV1% (FEV1/FVC); a reduced FEV1% suggests an obstructive ventilatory disorder such as COPD. Recording the heart's electrical activity is electrocardiography, microscopic examination of tissue is a pathology test, and a test using a radiopharmaceutical is a nuclear medicine test.

Q27 | Pathology tests

Which is incorrect about pathology tests?

  1. Pathology tests are classified as physiological function tests that directly measure the patient's body
  2. In histopathology, specimens are prepared from collected tissue and examined under a microscope for diagnosis
  3. A pathological autopsy is performed after death to clarify the pathological condition
  4. In cytology, collected cells are stained by methods such as the Papanicolaou method and examined
AnswerA. Pathology tests are classified as physiological function tests that directly measure the patient's body

Pathology tests examine cells and tissue collected from the patient under a microscope; they are not classified as physiological function tests, which directly measure the body as in electrocardiography, so this statement is incorrect. Using stains such as the Papanicolaou method in cytology, diagnosing by microscopic examination of specimens in histopathology, and performing an autopsy after death to clarify the pathological condition are all correct.

Q28 | Calculating the predictive value

A test was performed on 200 people. Of the 50 people with the disease, 45 tested positive; of the 150 people without the disease, 15 tested positive. What is the positive predictive value of this test?

  1. 30%
  2. 90%
  3. 25%
  4. 75%
AnswerD. 75%

The positive predictive value is "the proportion of people who actually have the disease among those who tested positive." The number of positive people is 45+15=60, of whom 45 have the disease, so 45÷60=75%. 90% corresponds to this test's sensitivity (45/50) and specificity (135/150), which are different from the predictive value. 30% and 25% result from mixing up the calculation.

Q29 | Presence of radiation exposure

Which imaging test does not involve radiation exposure?

  1. Nuclear medicine test
  2. X-ray CT
  3. Plain X-ray radiography
  4. MRI
AnswerD. MRI

MRI uses a strong magnetic field and electromagnetic waves, so it does not involve radiation exposure. X-ray CT and plain X-ray radiography irradiate X-rays, and nuclear medicine tests administer a radiopharmaceutical, so all of them involve exposure. Whether or not exposure occurs is basic knowledge relevant to choosing and explaining tests.

Q30 | MRI

Which is correct about MRI?

  1. It has no noise during imaging and finishes in a short time, making it the most suitable test for patients with claustrophobia
  2. It uses X-rays to obtain cross-sectional images of the body and is unaffected by metal in the body
  3. It is a test performed by intravenously injecting a radiopharmaceutical and imaging its distribution in the body
  4. Because it uses a strong magnetic field, it may not be possible to perform on people with implanted metal devices such as pacemakers
AnswerD. Because it uses a strong magnetic field, it may not be possible to perform on people with implanted metal devices such as pacemakers

MRI obtains images using a strong magnetic field and electromagnetic waves, so it may be contraindicated or require caution for people with implanted metal devices such as pacemakers. X-rays are used in CT and plain radiography, and a radiopharmaceutical is used in nuclear medicine tests. MRI produces loud noise during imaging and requires the patient to remain inside a narrow bore for a long time, so it actually requires caution for patients with claustrophobia.

Q31 | Nuclear medicine tests

Which is correct about nuclear medicine tests?

  1. Because it uses a strong magnetic field and electromagnetic waves, it involves no radiation exposure
  2. A radiopharmaceutical is administered and its distribution in the body is imaged to examine organ function and metabolism
  3. It is a test that obtains images using the reflection of ultrasound applied from the body surface
  4. A thin tube with a camera on its tip is inserted into the body to directly observe the mucosa of the digestive tract
AnswerB. A radiopharmaceutical is administered and its distribution in the body is imaged to examine organ function and metabolism

A nuclear medicine test administers a radiopharmaceutical containing a radioisotope (RI) and images its distribution in the body with a scintillation camera or similar device to evaluate organ function and metabolism; it includes bone scintigraphy, PET, and SPECT. Using ultrasound reflection is ultrasonography, using a magnetic field is MRI, and direct observation with a camera is endoscopy.

Q32 | Ultrasonography

Which is correct about ultrasonography (echo examination)?

  1. A strong magnetic field is required to obtain images
  2. It involves radiation exposure, so repeated use should be avoided
  3. It involves no radiation exposure and allows real-time observation
  4. It is best suited to observing the inside of bone
AnswerC. It involves no radiation exposure and allows real-time observation

Ultrasonography images the reflection of ultrasound applied from the body surface; it involves no radiation exposure, allows real-time observation of moving organs, and is easy to repeat. Because ultrasound is reflected and attenuated by bone and air, it is unsuited to observing the inside of bone. A strong magnetic field is needed for MRI, not ultrasonography.

Q33 | Classification of treatment methods

Which is incorrect about the classification of treatment methods?

  1. Non-invasive treatment is treatment with relatively little burden on the body
  2. Surgical treatment includes surgery
  3. Palliative treatment aims for cure by removing the cause of the disease
  4. Medical treatment includes drug therapy
AnswerC. Palliative treatment aims for cure by removing the cause of the disease

Treatment that aims for cure by removing the cause of the disease is curative treatment; palliative treatment refers to treatment aimed at relieving symptoms and slowing progression rather than cure, so this statement is incorrect. It is correct that non-invasive treatment places a relatively small burden on the body, that surgical treatment includes surgery, and that medical treatment includes drug therapy.

Q34 | TDM

Which is correct about TDM (therapeutic drug monitoring)?

  1. A pharmacist at a pharmacy checking the content of a prescription and querying it if there is a question
  2. Measuring a drug's blood concentration and using it to help design the dose and dosing interval
  3. The treatment plan itself that specifies the type, dose, and schedule of an anticancer drug
  4. A safety procedure in which the surgical team confirms the patient's name and the procedure before starting surgery
AnswerB. Measuring a drug's blood concentration and using it to help design the dose and dosing interval

TDM measures a drug's blood concentration and uses it to design the dose and dosing interval so that the level stays within the therapeutic range without exceeding the toxic range; it is performed for drugs whose therapeutic and toxic ranges are close. The preoperative confirmation procedure is the time-out, and an anticancer drug's treatment plan is called a regimen. Checking prescription content is dispensing work, not TDM.

Q35 | Radiotherapy

Which is correct about radiotherapy?

  1. External beam radiotherapy is a method of irradiation using a radioactive source placed inside the body
  2. Brachytherapy is a method of irradiation using a radioactive source placed inside the body or a body cavity
  3. The content of radiotherapy delivered need not be recorded
  4. There is no such thing as treatment using proton beams or heavy-ion beams
AnswerB. Brachytherapy is a method of irradiation using a radioactive source placed inside the body or a body cavity

Brachytherapy (including intracavitary irradiation) is a method that places a radioactive source near the lesion for irradiation. External beam radiotherapy irradiates from outside the body, so the description with the explanation reversed is incorrect. The content of irradiation is recorded in an irradiation record. Particle therapy using proton beams and heavy-ion beams is actually performed.

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