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Qualifications · IT Passport Success Lab

Management Strategy

Read the questions and explanations in English. The lectures (explanatory articles) are available in Japanese only.

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Q1 | SWOT analysis

Among the four perspectives of SWOT analysis, which combination represents the external environment surrounding the company?

  1. Weaknesses and threats
  2. Opportunities and threats
  3. Strengths and opportunities
  4. Strengths and weaknesses
AnswerB. Opportunities and threats

SWOT analysis organizes matters into strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. Of these, strengths and weaknesses refer to the company's internal environment, such as technical capability and human resources, while opportunities and threats refer to the external environment, such as market growth, legal changes, and competitor entry. Therefore the combination consisting only of external factors is opportunities and threats; any combination including strengths or weaknesses mixes in the internal environment and is wrong.

Q2 | 3C analysis

Which is the combination of the three elements analyzed in 3C analysis?

  1. Company, cost, and channel
  2. Customer, channel, and advertising
  3. Customer, competitor, and company
  4. Customer, cost, and distribution
AnswerC. Customer, competitor, and company

3C analysis examines the business environment from the three perspectives of Customer, meaning the customers and the market, Competitor, and Company, meaning one's own firm. Cost, distribution, and advertising are elements handled in the marketing mix, the 4Ps or 4Cs, and are not components of the 3Cs. The 3Cs are characterized by matching up whom to sell to, whom to compete with, and what the company itself can do.

Q3 | PPM

In PPM, product portfolio management, into which category is a product with low market growth and high market share classified?

  1. Problem child
  2. Star
  3. Dog
  4. Cash cow
AnswerD. Cash cow

PPM divides products into four categories along the two axes of market growth rate and market share. Low growth with high share is the cash cow, which needs little additional investment and generates funds. The star has both high growth and high share and still needs investment, the problem child has high growth but low share, and the dog is low on both and a candidate for withdrawal.

Q4 | 4Ps

Which combination makes up the four elements of the marketing mix known as the 4Ps?

  1. Product, Price, Place, Promotion
  2. Plan, Do, Check, Act
  3. Product, Profit, People, Process
  4. Price, Process, People, Physical
AnswerA. Product, Price, Place, Promotion

The 4Ps are a framework for assembling a selling approach from the seller's viewpoint, consisting of Product, Price, Place, and Promotion. Plan, Do, Check, Act is the PDCA cycle, representing a procedure for operational improvement, not a marketing framework. Combinations including Profit or Physical are not components of the 4Ps.

Q5 | 4Cs

In marketing, which element of the 4Cs corresponds to Price in the 4Ps?

  1. Cost, the expense borne by the customer
  2. Communication, the dialogue with customers
  3. Convenience, the ease of buying
  4. Customer Value, the value for the customer
AnswerA. Cost, the expense borne by the customer

The 4Cs restate the 4Ps from the buyer's viewpoint: Product corresponds to Customer Value, Price to Cost, Place to Convenience, and Promotion to Communication. Price is the amount the seller sets, but seen from the buyer it is the expense borne to purchase and use, so Cost corresponds. The other three correspond to Product, Place, and Promotion respectively.

Q6 | Core competence

In business strategy, which of the following appropriately describes core competence?

  1. A company's central strength that other companies cannot easily imitate
  2. An internal audit department established to monitor legal compliance
  3. Fixed assets such as land and buildings that a company owns
  4. A mechanism for consolidating and managing customer complaints
AnswerA. A company's central strength that other companies cannot easily imitate

Core competence refers to a company's central strengths that others cannot easily imitate, such as proprietary manufacturing technology or a customer base built over many years, and concentrating management resources there is considered the basic strategy. Fixed assets are an accounting category, an internal audit department is a matter of internal control, and complaint management is a matter of CRM and complaint handling; none of these is the definition of core competence.

Q7 | Growth strategy

In the growth matrix, Ansoff's growth vectors, which growth strategy introduces new products into an existing market?

  1. Market development
  2. New product development
  3. Market penetration
  4. Diversification
AnswerB. New product development

The growth matrix combines markets and products, each as existing or new. Launching new products into an existing market is new product development. Market penetration is raising share in an existing market with existing products, market development is expanding existing products into new markets, and diversification is the most challenging strategy of launching new products into new markets.

Q8 | Value chain

Which of the following is an appropriate purpose of value chain analysis?

  1. To analyze, for each activity such as procurement, manufacturing, shipping, and sales, where value is created and where costs are incurred
  2. To accumulate and analyze customers' purchase histories, predict what they are likely to buy next, and make individual proposals
  3. To analyze trends in competitors' share prices and financial statements and judge from a financial standpoint whether to pursue acquisitions or capital alliances
  4. To total employees' working hours by department, find sections with heavy overtime, and improve labor management
AnswerA. To analyze, for each activity such as procurement, manufacturing, shipping, and sales, where value is created and where costs are incurred

Value chain analysis breaks a business into activities such as inbound logistics, manufacturing, outbound logistics, sales, and service, clarifies which activities create value and where costs arise, and identifies the activities to strengthen. Share price analysis is financial evaluation, totaling working hours is labor management, and purchase prediction is a matter of CRM and data analysis; each has a different purpose.

Q9 | Niche strategy

Which strategy has a company with limited management resources concentrate them on a specific narrow market that large companies find hard to enter, building superiority there?

  1. Cost leadership strategy
  2. Niche strategy
  3. Diversification strategy
  4. Homogenization strategy
AnswerB. Niche strategy

A strategy of concentrating resources on a specific narrow market, a niche, is called a niche strategy. A cost leadership strategy wins on low prices by exploiting scale and suits resource-rich companies. A diversification strategy is expansion by launching new products into new markets, and a homogenization strategy is one in which a leading company imitates and neutralizes a lower-ranked company's differentiation; neither is concentration on a narrow market.

Q10 | M&A

Which of the following appropriately describes corporate M&A?

  1. Having no factories of one's own and outsourcing all manufacturing
  2. Expanding the business by acquiring or merging with other companies
  3. Concluding a contract to jointly operate a logistics hub with a business partner
  4. A program that lets employees buy the company's shares at a discount, supporting their asset building
AnswerB. Expanding the business by acquiring or merging with other companies

M&A stands for mergers and acquisitions, a means of expanding the business by acquiring technology, people, and sales channels in a short time through mergers and acquisitions. Programs for employees to acquire company shares are employee stock ownership plans and stock options, outsourcing all manufacturing is the fabless model, and jointly operating hubs is an alliance; none of these describes M&A.

Q11 | OEM

Which of the following appropriately describes OEM?

  1. Standardizing parts across multiple products and lowering manufacturing costs through economies of scale
  2. Transferring production to overseas subsidiaries with lower labor costs
  3. Manufacturing and supplying products that are sold under the client's brand name
  4. Publishing product drawings and specifications free of charge so that anyone can improve them
AnswerC. Manufacturing and supplying products that are sold under the client's brand name

OEM refers to manufacturing under the client's brand: the contracted party manufactures, and the products are sold bearing the ordering party's brand name. The ordering party can expand its lineup without capital investment, and the contracted party can raise the utilization of its production facilities. Parts standardization is one cost-reduction technique, publishing drawings is a matter of openness, and moving production overseas is offshoring; none of these is the definition of OEM.

Q12 | Alliance

What is it called when several companies, each remaining an independent firm, pool technologies and sales channels and form a cooperative relationship?

  1. Due diligence
  2. Cannibalization
  3. Alliance
  4. Restructuring
AnswerC. Alliance

An alliance is a form of cooperation in which, unlike mergers and acquisitions, each company keeps its independence; examples include joint development and sales partnerships. Due diligence is investigating the actual state of a target company before an M&A, cannibalization is the phenomenon of a company's own products competing for the same customers, and restructuring is reorganizing the business; none of these denotes a cooperative relationship between companies.

Q13 | BPR

Which of the following appropriately describes BPR, business process re-engineering?

  1. Preparing spare equipment in case of system failure to raise availability
  2. Measuring and totaling employees' working hours for labor management and personnel evaluation
  3. Redesigning workflows and the organization from the ground up, without assuming the existing work procedures
  4. Investigating a competitor's superior work procedures and copying them into your own company as they are
AnswerC. Redesigning workflows and the organization from the ground up, without assuming the existing work procedures

BPR is an effort that does not take the current way of working for granted but questions the very necessity of each task and radically rebuilds workflows and the organization. Preparing spares is an availability measure, measuring working hours is labor management, and importing another company's procedures is imitation; none of them means fundamental redesign of work. It is also distinguished from incremental improvement activities.

Q14 | BPO

Which of the following appropriately describes BPO?

  1. Business analysis that diagrams and visualizes workflows to uncover waste and duplication
  2. Outsourcing whole business processes, such as accounting or inquiry handling, to specialized external companies
  3. Management by objectives that allocates the company-wide sales target among departments and evaluates achievement
  4. Migrating servers operated in-house to cloud services to reduce the burden of running the infrastructure
AnswerB. Outsourcing whole business processes, such as accounting or inquiry handling, to specialized external companies

BPO stands for business process outsourcing, a form in which business processes are entrusted as a whole, on an ongoing basis, to specialized external companies. The company can concentrate on core operations and also draw on the contractor's know-how. Visualizing workflows is business analysis, moving to the cloud is a matter of system infrastructure, and allocating targets is management by objectives; each is a concept separate from outsourcing.

Q15 | CRM

Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of introducing CRM?

  1. To manage core business data such as accounting, personnel, and production in one place across departments
  2. To optimize the whole flow from material procurement through production, logistics, and sales, including business partners
  3. To share the progress of negotiations and visit histories and support the activities of sales representatives
  4. To maintain and strengthen relationships with customers over the long term, raising customer satisfaction and earnings
AnswerD. To maintain and strengthen relationships with customers over the long term, raising customer satisfaction and earnings

CRM is customer relationship management: it centralizes customers' attributes and their purchase and inquiry histories, tailors responses to each individual, and aims to keep customers doing business over the long term. Optimizing the flow from procurement to sales is SCM, centralized management of core business data is ERP, and supporting sales activities is the purpose of SFA; their scopes differ.

Q16 | SCM

Which of the following appropriately describes SCM?

  1. A system that centrally manages each customer's attributes and purchase and inquiry histories and makes proposals tailored to each individual
  2. A system that manages the flow from material procurement through production, logistics, and sales in an integrated way, including business partners, optimizing inventory and delivery times
  3. A system specialized in sharing the progress of negotiations and visit histories, supporting the activities of sales representatives
  4. Packaged software that integrates core operations such as accounting, personnel, production, and sales and centrally manages data previously scattered across departments
AnswerB. A system that manages the flow from material procurement through production, logistics, and sales in an integrated way, including business partners, optimizing inventory and delivery times

SCM is supply chain management: it manages the flow of goods and information from procurement through production, logistics, and sales as a whole, including business partners, aiming to reduce inventory and shorten delivery times. Individual proposals based on purchase history are CRM, a package integrating core operations is ERP, and a system specialized in sales support is SFA; each manages a different domain.

Q17 | ERP

Which of the following is the main aim of introducing an ERP package?

  1. To analyze website visitor numbers and browsing paths, measure the effect of placed advertisements, and improve the next measures
  2. To encrypt the communication paths for data exchanged with business partners, raising protection against eavesdropping and tampering
  3. To create three-dimensional product drawings on a computer and streamline the design and prototyping processes
  4. To manage core business data such as accounting, personnel, production, and sales in one place and use management resources from a company-wide optimal viewpoint
AnswerD. To manage core business data such as accounting, personnel, production, and sales in one place and use management resources from a company-wide optimal viewpoint

ERP is enterprise resource planning: its aim is to integrate the core business data previously scattered across departments so that people, goods, and money can be allocated from a company-wide optimal viewpoint. Encrypting communications is a security measure, access analysis is Web marketing, and three-dimensional drawing is a CAD function; none of these is the main purpose of introducing ERP.

Q18 | SFA

Which of the following appropriately describes SFA?

  1. A system that automatically controls factory production equipment by computer
  2. A system that totals journal entry data and automatically produces financial statements
  3. A system that shares the progress of negotiations and customer visit histories, supporting sales activities
  4. A personnel system that has employees clock in and out and totals working hours and leave taken
AnswerC. A system that shares the progress of negotiations and customer visit histories, supporting sales activities

SFA is sales force automation: it shares deal progress, visit histories, and planned next actions across the organization to raise the quality and efficiency of sales activities. Attendance management is a personnel system, automatic control of production equipment is FA, and producing financial statements is an accounting system's role. SFA is sometimes positioned as part of CRM, which covers customer relationships in general, but its distinctive focus is on sales activities.

Q19 | Knowledge management

Which of the following appropriately describes knowledge management?

  1. A production method that makes only what is needed, when needed, in the quantity needed, minimizing inventory
  2. An effort to share and use, across the whole organization, the know-how individuals have gained through experience, strengthening the company's competitiveness
  3. A program in which the company subsidizes exam fees and course costs when employees obtain work-related certifications
  4. A mechanism that restricts access rights per person to narrow what each can view, preventing leaks of customer information
AnswerB. An effort to share and use, across the whole organization, the know-how individuals have gained through experience, strengthening the company's competitiveness

Knowledge management is the effort to turn the hard-to-verbalize know-how held by individuals, tacit knowledge, into visible forms such as case studies and manuals, explicit knowledge, and to share and use it across the organization. Subsidizing certifications is a personnel development program, restricting access rights is an information security measure, and low-inventory production is the just-in-time method; none of these aims at sharing and using knowledge.

Q20 | KGI

Which of the following appropriately describes a KGI, a key goal indicator?

  1. An intermediate indicator measuring progress toward the goal along the way
  2. The name of the deliberative body that discusses and decides the goal
  3. A clarification of the important factors that hold the key to achieving the goal
  4. The final goal to be achieved, expressed as a number
AnswerD. The final goal to be achieved, expressed as a number

KGI stands for key goal indicator, an indicator that quantifies the final goal, such as reaching 100 million yen in annual sales. What identifies the key factors is the CSF, the critical success factor, and what measures interim progress is the KPI, the key performance indicator. It is not a term for a deliberative body. Sorting them as goal, winning factor, and interim indicator helps avoid confusion.

Q21 | KPI

A company has set the KGI of reaching 100 million yen in annual sales via its website. Which of the following is an appropriate indicator to set as a KPI?

  1. The name of the prefecture where the head office is located
  2. The amount itself of 100 million yen in annual sales
  3. The number of articles in the company's management philosophy
  4. The website's monthly visitor count
AnswerD. The website's monthly visitor count

A KPI is an interim indicator measuring whether progress toward the KGI is on track, so a figure like monthly visitor count, which can be measured regularly and ties to sales, is appropriate. Annual sales of 100 million yen is the KGI itself, not a KPI. The number of philosophy articles and the head office location do not express business progress and are meaningless as indicators.

Q22 | BSC

Which is the appropriate combination of the four perspectives used in the balanced scorecard?

  1. Finance, legal, personnel, public relations
  2. Financial, customer, business process, learning and growth
  3. Quality, cost, delivery, safety
  4. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
AnswerB. Financial, customer, business process, learning and growth

The balanced scorecard is a technique that sets goals and indicators from the four perspectives of financial, customer, business process, and learning and growth, evaluating performance without bias. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats are the perspectives of SWOT analysis, quality, cost, and delivery are elements emphasized in production management, and finance, legal, personnel, and public relations is a mere list of departments; none of these is the BSC's set of perspectives.

Q23 | TQM

Which of the following appropriately describes TQM, total quality management?

  1. A system in which only the quality assurance department sets quality standards and demands compliance from other departments such as manufacturing and sales
  2. Inspection work that checks every product before shipment, removes defectives, and prevents them from reaching the market
  3. A management approach that treats quality management not as the manufacturing department's activity alone but as a company-wide effort of continuous improvement
  4. Obtaining certification for the international quality management system standard through examination by a third-party body
AnswerC. A management approach that treats quality management not as the manufacturing department's activity alone but as a company-wide effort of continuous improvement

TQM is a management approach that makes quality the responsibility not of manufacturing alone but of the whole company, including sales and administration, improving continuously. Full inspection is merely one way of checking quality, and a system where only the quality assurance department sets standards actually runs against TQM's philosophy. Certification to the international standard is third-party attestation of a quality management system, not TQM itself.

Q24 | Innovation

Which of the following is an appropriate example of process innovation?

  1. Developed and released a product with novel functions never seen before
  2. Completely renewed the product's external design and sold it
  3. Launched a product using a new material onto the market
  4. Fundamentally reworked the manufacturing process and greatly raised productivity
AnswerD. Fundamentally reworked the manufacturing process and greatly raised productivity

Process innovation is innovation that changes manufacturing processes or ways of working to greatly raise productivity or quality. Developing a product with new functions, launching one using new materials, and renewing the external design all change the value of the product itself and count as product innovation. Distinguish by whether what is made changes or how it is made changes.

Q25 | Valley of death

In technology development, which term describes the barrier faced at the stage of commercializing development results, caused by shortages of funds and people?

  1. Valley of death
  2. Chasm
  3. Darwinian sea
  4. Devil river
AnswerA. Valley of death

There are three walls before a technology becomes a business, and the wall at the stage of moving from development to commercialization is called the valley of death. The devil river is the wall between basic research and development toward productization, and the Darwinian sea is the wall after commercialization, surviving competition until the product takes root as an industry. The chasm is the gap when a new product spreads from the early market to the mainstream market, a concept of the diffusion process.

Q26 | Chasm

Which of the following appropriately describes the chasm?

  1. The barrier at which basic research results stall without advancing to the development stage for productization
  2. The blank period between filing a patent application and its registration
  3. The situation in which a commercialized product is exposed to fierce competition in the market and forced to fight for survival
  4. The deep gap that must be crossed when a new product moves from the early market into full-scale diffusion
AnswerD. The deep gap that must be crossed when a new product moves from the early market into full-scale diffusion

The chasm refers to the deep gap that stands in the way when a product spreads from the early market, centered on novelty-seeking buyers, to the mainstream market, centered on ordinary consumers. The barrier from research to development is the devil river, and post-commercialization competition is the Darwinian sea; both are walls in the process of technology becoming business but are distinct from the chasm. It has nothing to do with patent examination periods.

Q27 | Technology roadmap

Which of the following appropriately describes a technology roadmap?

  1. A plan that charts, along a time axis, the goals of technology development and the dates by which they should be reached
  2. A work instruction document showing a product's manufacturing steps in order
  3. A table listing the skills and proficiency of in-house engineers by job category
  4. A list of filed patents organized by country
AnswerA. A plan that charts, along a time axis, the goals of technology development and the dates by which they should be reached

A technology roadmap is a plan charting along a time axis which technologies are to be developed to what level and by when, used so that the parties involved share the outlook for development. A skills list is skill management, a work instruction document is a manufacturing directive, and a patent list is an intellectual property management document; none of these shows the path of future technology development.

Q28 | API economy

Which of the following appropriately describes the API economy?

  1. A benchmark for measuring program execution speed under identical conditions and comparing performance across products
  2. An internal convention that standardizes the item names and formats of data exchanged between in-house systems, reducing the development effort for integration
  3. An accounting method for recovering the costs of developing and operating an API from users according to usage counts
  4. An economic sphere in which companies publish their services' functions as APIs and link with other companies' services to create new value
AnswerD. An economic sphere in which companies publish their services' functions as APIs and link with other companies' services to create new value

The API economy refers to the economic sphere that grows as companies publish their services' functions as APIs and other companies combine them to create new services. Services embedding map or payment functions are typical examples. Cost recovery methods, standardizing internal data formats, and execution speed benchmarks all have nothing to do with the idea of creating value through inter-company functional integration.

Q29 | Lean startup

Which of the following is an appropriate description of the lean startup approach?

  1. Enter the market only after lowering the unit cost per product through mass production
  2. Analyze competitors' best-selling products and offer equivalent products more cheaply
  3. Spend a long time crafting a meticulous business plan and launch the finished product onto the market all at once
  4. Build a prototype with minimal functions in a short time, test customer reactions, and repeat improvement and course changes
AnswerD. Build a prototype with minimal functions in a short time, test customer reactions, and repeat improvement and course changes

The lean startup is a way of developing a business that quickly releases a prototype with minimal functions, learns from customer reactions, and repeats improvement or pivots, avoiding the waste of overbuilding. Launching a finished product all at once is the exact opposite, and cost reduction through mass production or imitating competitors differs from the idea of repeatedly testing hypotheses.

Q30 | E-commerce types

A transaction on a flea market app in which a used item listed by one individual is bought by another individual falls under which category of electronic commerce?

  1. BtoE
  2. BtoB
  3. BtoC
  4. CtoC
AnswerD. CtoC

Electronic commerce is classified by the combination of transacting parties. This is a transaction between individuals, consumers, so it is CtoC. BtoB is between companies, BtoC is sales from companies to consumers, and BtoE is provision from a company to its own employees. The flea market app operator merely provides the marketplace; the parties to the sale are the individuals.

Q31 | Long tail

Which of the following appropriately describes the long tail?

  1. A technique of narrowing shelf space to best-selling items only, compressing inventory and display costs
  2. A mechanism that finely varies product prices according to shifts in demand to maximize revenue
  3. A sales technique in which a buyer refers acquaintances, and when they buy, both parties receive benefits
  4. The phenomenon in which the combined sales of a wide variety of items that each sell rarely contribute substantially to total sales
AnswerD. The phenomenon in which the combined sales of a wide variety of items that each sell rarely contribute substantially to total sales

The long tail is the phenomenon in which, by broadening the assortment, the combined sales of rarely selling items contribute substantially to overall sales; it is pronounced in online retail, where shelf constraints are small. Narrowing to best-sellers is the opposite idea, price variation with demand is dynamic pricing, and referral benefits are referral programs; each is a different concept.

Q32 | Affiliate marketing

Which of the following appropriately describes affiliate marketing?

  1. Serving different advertisements to each individual based on their browsing history and interests
  2. A program in which a member introduces another person, and when that person joins, both receive discounts
  3. A mechanism in which, when a product is purchased via an advertisement placed on a website, the site's operator is paid a reward
  4. Optimizing a Web page's structure, headings, and choice of keywords so that your site appears high in search results
AnswerC. A mechanism in which, when a product is purchased via an advertisement placed on a website, the site's operator is paid a reward

Affiliate marketing is performance-based advertising: when a purchase or application is completed via the hosting site, a reward is paid to the site operator. Aiming for high search rankings is SEO, serving ads based on browsing history is targeted advertising, and member-referral discounts are referral programs; none of these is a mechanism of advertising rewards tied to results.

Q33 | Omnichannel

Which of the following appropriately describes omnichannel?

  1. Several companies jointly operating warehouses and delivery networks, sharing and lowering logistics costs
  2. Integrating multiple sales channels such as physical stores, online shops, and apps so that customers can purchase and pick up in the same way from any of them
  3. A technology that bundles multiple communication lines into one to obtain effective speeds that a single line cannot deliver
  4. Splitting the same kind of product into several price tiers by quality and specification, selling to a broad range of customers with differing purchasing power
AnswerB. Integrating multiple sales channels such as physical stores, online shops, and apps so that customers can purchase and pick up in the same way from any of them

Omnichannel is the effort to integrate sales channels such as physical stores, online shops, and apps together with inventory and customer information, so that customers can buy without noticing the difference between channels, for example ordering online and picking up in store. Bundling communication lines is a networking technique, splitting price tiers is a pricing strategy, and joint logistics is inter-company collaboration; none of these means integrating sales channels.

Q34 | Sharing economy

Which of the following is an appropriate example of the sharing economy?

  1. Several companies merge into one, consolidating overlapping departments and management resources to expand the business
  2. Employees save from their monthly pay and hold company shares through an employee shareholding association
  3. A company sells off its unsold products at deep discounts for a limited period
  4. An individual rents out a spare room in their home to travelers for a fee through an online marketplace
AnswerD. An individual rents out a spare room in their home to travelers for a fee through an online marketplace

The sharing economy is a mechanism in which individuals lend, borrow, and share underused assets they own, such as homes, cars, and skills, with others through online intermediary platforms, and renting out a spare room is a typical example. Discount sales are sales promotion, mergers are M&A, and shareholding associations are employee asset-building programs; none of these involves sharing idle assets.

Q35 | Crowdfunding

Which of the following appropriately describes crowdfunding?

  1. A mechanism for collecting small amounts of money over the Internet from an unspecified large number of people
  2. A public program enabling small and medium enterprises to obtain long-term loans from financial institutions at low interest rates
  3. A billing method in which you pay only for the amount of cloud services used
  4. A technique that spreads processing across multiple servers to level the load
AnswerA. A mechanism for collecting small amounts of money over the Internet from an unspecified large number of people

Crowdfunding is a mechanism of publishing a plan on the Internet and collecting small amounts of funding from many unspecified supporters; types include reward-based, where backers receive products, donation-based, and investment-based with financial returns. The name derives from crowd, and it is a different word from cloud services. It has nothing to do with load balancing, pay-per-use billing, or public loan programs.

Q36 | Fintech

Which of the following is an appropriate example of fintech?

  1. A mechanism for digitizing and storing internal documents
  2. A mechanism that automatically controls factory production lines with machines and computers
  3. A mechanism for monitoring the growth of crops with sensors
  4. A service for making code-based payments and money transfers with a smartphone app
AnswerD. A service for making code-based payments and money transfers with a smartphone app

Fintech is a coinage combining finance and technology, referring to new financial services that use IT. Code payments and transfer apps, automatic household account books, and AI-driven investment advice are examples. Automatic control of production lines is FA, digitizing documents is document management, and growth monitoring is smart agriculture; none of these is a financial service.

Q37 | Kanban method

Which of the following is an appropriate purpose of the kanban method, the just-in-time production method?

  1. To enable a single worker to assemble a product from start to finish
  2. To calculate the quantities of materials needed from the production plan and the bill of materials
  3. To produce what is needed, when needed, in the quantity needed, reducing intermediate inventory
  4. To create design drawings on a computer
AnswerC. To produce what is needed, when needed, in the quantity needed, reducing intermediate inventory

The kanban method has each upstream process make only as much as the downstream process has used, signaled by kanban cards, thereby producing what is needed, when needed, in the quantity needed, and cutting intermediate inventory and overproduction waste. Assembly by one or a few workers is the cell production method, calculating material requirements is MRP, and creating drawings is CAD; each is a separate mechanism.

Q38 | BYOD

Which of the following appropriately describes BYOD?

  1. A rule that uniformly prohibits taking business data outside the company
  2. Working somewhere other than the office, such as at home
  3. The company lending work devices to employees
  4. Employees using personally owned information devices for work
AnswerD. Employees using personally owned information devices for work

BYOD stands for Bring Your Own Device, using employees' privately owned PCs and smartphones for work. It saves device costs, but loss and private use create risks of information leakage, so usage rules and technical measures are needed. Devices lent by the company are the opposite arrangement, working outside the office is telework, and a prohibition on taking data out is one kind of security rule.

Q39 | Autonomous driving

In the levels of autonomous driving, at which level does the system perform all driving operations under limited conditions, while the driver must take over when the system so requests?

  1. Level 1
  2. Level 3
  3. Level 2
  4. Level 4
AnswerB. Level 3

Level 3 is called conditional driving automation: the system handles all driving operations under limited conditions, but the driver must respond to the system's requests. Level 1 assists a single operation such as accelerating or steering, and level 2 assists a combination of operations; in both, the human remains the primary driver. Level 4 is the stage where, under limited conditions, no response from a driver is required.

Q40 | RPA

Which of the following is an appropriate application of RPA?

  1. Introducing industrial robots that weld and paint on a factory production line, automating physical work previously done by hand
  2. AI analyzing past sales data and weather data to forecast next month's demand for each product
  3. Having software robots automatically execute routine clerical work of transferring and cross-checking data between multiple systems
  4. A humanoid robot standing at reception, responding to visitors by voice and guiding them to the staff member's desk
AnswerC. Having software robots automatically execute routine clerical work of transferring and cross-checking data between multiple systems

RPA is a mechanism in which software robots take over screen operations and the like, and it suits automating clerical work with fixed procedures, such as transferring and matching data between systems. Welding robots and reception robots are physical machines, not the clerical automation RPA covers. Demand forecasting from data is AI analysis, whose purpose differs from standing in for routine work.

Q41 | Digital twin

Which of the following appropriately describes a digital twin?

  1. Duplicating the same data at two distant sites in preparation for equipment failure or disaster
  2. A technology that captures the state of real equipment and products with sensors and reproduces them in virtual space for use in simulation
  3. A technique in which two people work as a pair, one typing while the other checks, developing a single program
  4. A method of keeping a standby system identical to production running at all times and switching to it immediately when a failure occurs
AnswerB. A technology that captures the state of real equipment and products with sensors and reproduces them in virtual space for use in simulation

A digital twin is a technology that gathers the state of real equipment and products with sensors and builds a twin in virtual space, enabling failure prediction and process improvement trials without stopping the real thing. Duplicating data is backup, two-person development is pair programming, and an always-running standby is hot standby; none of these is simulated experimentation through reproduction of reality.

Q42 | Deepfakes

Which of the following appropriately describes a deepfake, an example of generative AI misuse?

  1. A technique of processing AI training data with rotations, flips, and the like to inflate the apparent quantity of data
  2. Video or audio, created with AI, that makes a real person appear to say things they never said, looking genuine
  3. A phenomenon in which an AI memorizes parts of its training data verbatim and includes them in its output
  4. An operational work step in which humans verify AI output before publication and correct any errors
AnswerB. Video or audio, created with AI, that makes a real person appear to say things they never said, looking genuine

A deepfake is video or audio produced by generative AI that makes a real person appear to say things they never said, and it risks being misused for impersonation scams and spreading disinformation. Inflating training data is data augmentation, human verification of output is an operational safeguard, and outputting memorized training data is a separate problem of memorization and overfitting; none of these refers to generating fake video and audio.

Q43 | Generative AI

Which of the following appropriately describes generative AI?

  1. A software robot that takes over clerical work with fixed procedures
  2. A mechanism for encrypting data and storing it safely
  3. AI that learns from large amounts of data and newly creates text, images, and the like in response to user instructions
  4. A mechanism that searches a set of prewritten answers prepared by hand and returns the one matching the question
AnswerC. AI that learns from large amounts of data and newly creates text, images, and the like in response to user instructions

Generative AI creates new text, images, audio, programs, and more in response to user instructions, based on what it has learned from large amounts of data. A mechanism that merely finds and returns prepared answers is a conventional search or FAQ system, encrypting data is a security technology, and taking over routine clerical work is RPA; none of these generates new content.

Q44 | Hallucination

What is the phenomenon called in which generative AI outputs content not based on fact as plausible-sounding text?

  1. Hallucination
  2. Filter bubble
  3. Deepfake
  4. Overfitting
AnswerA. Hallucination

The phenomenon of generative AI outputting untrue content plausibly is called hallucination. It can fabricate nonexistent sources and figures, so outputs should be fact-checked by humans before use. A deepfake is fake video or audio made with AI, overfitting is fitting the training data so closely that performance on unseen data suffers, and a filter bubble is the state of being surrounded only by information matching one's tastes; each is a different phenomenon.

Q45 | Prompt engineering

Which of the following appropriately describes prompt engineering?

  1. Negotiating with the provider so that the generative AI usage fees become cheaper
  2. Devising how to phrase instructions so as to obtain the desired output from generative AI
  3. Designing the learning algorithms and model architecture used inside generative AI
  4. Boosting the performance of the servers running generative AI to speed up responses
AnswerB. Devising how to phrase instructions so as to obtain the desired output from generative AI

Prompt engineering is the practice of crafting the instructions given to generative AI, such as concretely specifying roles, conditions, output formats, and examples, to obtain output close to the goal. Its hallmark is refining how the AI is used rather than rebuilding the AI itself; designing learning algorithms is developer-side work, server upgrades are an infrastructure matter, and fee negotiation is a procurement matter, so none of these applies.

Q46 | Generative AI caution

Which of the following is an appropriate point of caution when using a generative AI service provided by an outside company for work?

  1. The output text is always accurate, so it may be published as is without checking
  2. Entering unpublished customer information or confidential internal documents could lead to an information leak
  3. Input content is never used for training, so confidential information may be entered freely
  4. The rights to generated content always belong to the user, so there is no need to check the terms of service
AnswerB. Entering unpublished customer information or confidential internal documents could lead to an information leak

Information entered into an external service may be transmitted to and stored by the provider, which could lead to leaks of confidential or personal information, so the range of information that may be entered needs to be defined in internal rules. Generative AI output can be factually wrong, so checking is essential, and the handling of input and the rights to generated content are set by each service's terms, so reviewing them is indispensable.

Q47 | AI and rights

When using an image output by generative AI in your company's advertising, which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

  1. There is no need to read the terms of service of the service being used
  2. A person checks that it does not infringe third parties' rights, for example whether it resembles existing works
  3. As long as the source is credited, any image may be used freely
  4. Since AI created it, there is no need to check third parties' copyrights or trademark rights
AnswerB. A person checks that it does not infringe third parties' rights, for example whether it resembles existing works

Generative AI output can end up resembling existing works, and publishing it as is risks infringing copyrights, trademark rights, and the like, so a person must check similarity and rights before publication. Being AI-made grants no exemption from rights checks, and crediting a source alone does not make anything free to use. The handling of generated content is also set in the terms of service, so checking them is necessary.

Q48 | AI society principles

Which of the following is an appropriate way of thinking when using AI, as set out in documents such as the Social Principles of Human-Centric AI?

  1. People should not depend excessively on AI judgments, and final judgment and responsibility should remain with humans
  2. There is no need to explain to users or to society for what purpose and how AI is being used
  3. AI judgments are always correct, so human checks may be omitted
  4. Bias in training data does not affect the results, so it need not be considered
AnswerA. People should not depend excessively on AI judgments, and final judgment and responsibility should remain with humans

The Social Principles of Human-Centric AI call for respect for human dignity and for ensuring fairness, accountability, and transparency; the key point is not leaving everything to AI but keeping final judgment and responsibility with humans. AI judgments are not always right, and biased training data produces biased results. Transparency of use and accountability are also required by the principles, so the idea that no explanation is needed is wrong.

Q49 | AI usage models

Which of the following is an appropriate advantage of using generative AI functions provided by a cloud vendor via an API, without developing an AI model in-house?

  1. It can always be used with in-house facilities alone, even when the Internet connection is cut off
  2. No fees ever arise regardless of usage volume or frequency, so it can be used free of charge indefinitely
  3. AI can be put to business use in a short time without preparing large-scale training environments or specialist staff in-house
  4. The internal structure and parameters of the trained model can be freely rewritten and rebuilt at the user's discretion
AnswerC. AI can be put to business use in a short time without preparing large-scale training environments or specialist staff in-house

Using a cloud vendor's AI functions has the advantage of quick adoption without preparing large training datasets, computing resources, or specialist staff in-house. On the other hand, freely modifying the model's internals is normally impossible, and since it presupposes communication, it cannot be used when the line is down. Fees generally accrue according to usage, so it is not necessarily free.

Q50 | AI and fairness

When using AI for document screening in hiring, which of the following is an appropriate point for the company to watch out for?

  1. There is no need to verify past screening results
  2. If the training data is biased, applicants with certain attributes may receive unfairly negative judgments
  3. The fact that AI is used in document screening must never be disclosed to applicants or outside the company
  4. It is acceptable that the AI's judgments cannot be explained
AnswerB. If the training data is biased, applicants with certain attributes may receive unfairly negative judgments

Because AI learns from past data, bias in that data risks repeatedly disadvantaging applicants of a particular gender or age. In uses affecting people's rights, the training data and results must be verified continuously, the grounds for decisions must be explainable, and the final decision should be made by a person. Hiding the fact of AI use is inappropriate from the standpoint of transparency.

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