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Qualifications · OTC Drug Seller (Tohan) Success Lab

Structure and Function of the Human Body

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Q1 | Basics of the digestive system

Which of the following statements about the digestive system is correct?

  1. The esophagus has many secretory glands for digestive juices distributed in it, and digestion is carried out by the digestive juice secreted from them.
  2. Reducing the contents of the digestive tract into smaller pieces through chewing and the movement of the digestive tract is called chemical digestion.
  3. The digestive tract is a tube running from the oral cavity to the anus, about 9 m long in total in an average adult.
  4. The inner wall mucosa of the large intestine has villi, which allow efficient absorption of nutrients.
AnswerC. The digestive tract is a tube running from the oral cavity to the anus, about 9 m long in total in an average adult.

The Guide states that the digestive tract is a tube running from the oral cavity to the anus, about 9 m long in total in an average adult. The esophagus has no secretory glands for digestive juices. The large intestine is distinguished from the small intestine in that its inner wall mucosa has no villi. Reduction by chewing and the movement of the digestive tract is mechanical digestion, while that by the action of digestive enzymes is chemical digestion.

Q2 | Saliva and the oral cavity

Which of the following statements about the oral cavity and saliva is incorrect?

  1. Ptyalin, contained in saliva, is a digestive enzyme that breaks down protein into amino acids.
  2. Saliva keeps the pH inside the oral cavity close to neutral, preventing tooth decay from acid.
  3. The surface of the tooth crown is covered with enamel, the hardest part of the body.
  4. The surface of the tongue has countless small projections called papillae, on which taste buds that detect taste are distributed.
AnswerA. Ptyalin, contained in saliva, is a digestive enzyme that breaks down protein into amino acids.

The Guide states that ptyalin (salivary amylase) is a digestive enzyme that breaks down starch into dextrin and maltose, and that erepsin, on the intestinal mucosa of the small intestine, is what breaks down protein into amino acids. That enamel is the hardest part of the body, that taste buds are distributed on the tongue's papillae, and that saliva keeps the oral cavity's pH close to neutral, all match the Guide.

Q3 | Function of the stomach

Which of the following statements about the stomach is correct?

  1. The time food contents stay in the stomach is relatively short for a food high in lipids.
  2. Pepsin, contained in gastric juice, is an enzyme that breaks down lipids.
  3. Pepsinogen is converted by gastric acid into pepsin, an enzyme that digests protein.
  4. A component contained in gastric mucus plays an important role in the absorption of vitamin K in the large intestine.
AnswerC. Pepsinogen is converted by gastric acid into pepsin, an enzyme that digests protein.

The Guide states that pepsinogen, secreted from the gastric glands, is converted by gastric acid into pepsin, which works together with gastric acid as gastric juice. Pepsin digests protein, not lipids. The retention time is relatively short for a food mainly composed of carbohydrates, and relatively long for a food high in lipids. A component contained in gastric mucus plays an important role in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.

Q4 | Structure of the small intestine

Which of the following statements about the small intestine is incorrect?

  1. Except for the upper part of the duodenum, the inner wall of the small intestine is smooth, with no folds or villi seen.
  2. The duodenum is a C-shaped, curved part about 25 cm long continuing from the stomach, and the openings of the pancreatic duct and bile duct are located at the curved section.
  3. It is a tubular organ 6 to 7 m long in total, divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
  4. Of the part of the small intestine continuing from the duodenum, roughly the upper 40% is the jejunum and the remaining approximately 60% is the ileum.
AnswerA. Except for the upper part of the duodenum, the inner wall of the small intestine is smooth, with no folds or villi seen.

The Guide states that because the small intestine is an important organ for the absorption of nutrients, it has a structure that increases the surface area of its inner wall: except for the upper part of the duodenum, the inner wall of the small intestine has circular folds, and the mucosal surface is covered with villi. That it is 6 to 7 m long in total and divided into three parts, that the duodenum is about 25 cm long and C-shaped with the openings of the pancreatic duct and bile duct, and that roughly the upper 40% is the jejunum with the remaining approximately 60% the ileum, all match the Guide.

Q5 | The pancreas

Which of the following statements about the pancreas is correct?

  1. The pancreas is a digestive gland that supplies only the enzymes that digest carbohydrates and protein, and is thought not to be responsible for supplying an enzyme that digests lipids.
  2. The pancreas is a digestive gland, and also an endocrine gland that secretes hormones regulating blood glucose (insulin and glucagon) and the like into the blood.
  3. Trypsin in pancreatic juice is secreted already in its active form, and breaks down protein partially digested in the stomach (peptone) all the way to amino acids.
  4. Pancreatic juice is strongly acidic, has the function of further breaking down contents that have become acidic in the stomach, and is secreted into the duodenum.
AnswerB. The pancreas is a digestive gland, and also an endocrine gland that secretes hormones regulating blood glucose (insulin and glucagon) and the like into the blood.

The Guide states that the pancreas is a digestive gland, and also an endocrine gland that secretes hormones regulating blood glucose (insulin and glucagon) and the like into the blood. Pancreatic juice is weakly alkaline, and neutralizes contents that have become acidic in the stomach. The pancreas is responsible for supplying all the enzymes that digest carbohydrates, protein, and lipids respectively. Trypsin is secreted as its precursor trypsinogen, and becomes trypsin through the action of a component contained in intestinal juice secreted in the duodenum.

Q6 | The gallbladder and bile

Which of the following statements about the gallbladder and bile is incorrect?

  1. Most of the bile salts released into the intestine are reabsorbed in the small intestine and returned to the liver.
  2. The gallbladder is an organ that concentrates and stores bile produced in the liver, and contracts to send bile into the intestine when contents enter the duodenum.
  3. Bilirubin (bile pigment), contained in bile, is a waste product produced from the breakdown of white blood cells.
  4. Bile salts, contained in bile, make the digestion of lipids easier and also assist in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
AnswerC. Bilirubin (bile pigment), contained in bile, is a waste product produced from the breakdown of white blood cells.

The Guide states that bilirubin (bile pigment) is a waste product produced from the breakdown of hemoglobin in red blood cells, not white blood cells. That the gallbladder concentrates and stores bile and contracts to send it into the duodenum when contents enter it, that bile salts make lipid digestion easier and assist absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, and that most bile salts are reabsorbed in the small intestine and returned to the liver (the enterohepatic circulation), all match the Guide.

Q7 | Function of the liver

Which of the following statements about the liver is correct?

  1. Ammonia, produced when amino acids are broken down and the like, is metabolized in the liver into uric acid and excreted from the kidneys.
  2. The liver is a storage organ only for fat-soluble vitamins, and water-soluble vitamins are not stored there.
  3. Glucose absorbed in the small intestine is carried by the blood to the liver and stored as glycogen.
  4. Alcohol is first metabolized in the liver into acetic acid, and then further metabolized into acetaldehyde.
AnswerC. Glucose absorbed in the small intestine is carried by the blood to the liver and stored as glycogen.

The Guide states that glucose absorbed in the small intestine is carried by the blood to the liver and stored as glycogen. The liver is also a storage organ for water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin B6 and B12, in addition to fat-soluble vitamins such as vitamins A and D. Alcohol is first metabolized into acetaldehyde, and then further metabolized into acetic acid (the order is reversed in the statement). Ammonia is metabolized in the liver into urea.

Q8 | The large intestine

Which of the following statements about the large intestine is incorrect?

  1. Ordinarily, most of the components of feces are food residue, with water accounting for only about 5%.
  2. It is a tubular organ consisting of the cecum, appendix, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum.
  3. Intestinal bacteria in the large intestine also produce substances such as vitamin K, needed for blood coagulation and calcium fixation in bone.
  4. In the large intestine, water and electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, and phosphate are absorbed, forming solid feces.
AnswerA. Ordinarily, most of the components of feces are food residue, with water accounting for only about 5%.

The Guide states that ordinarily, most of the components of feces are water, with food residue accounting for only about 5%—the statement reverses this. That the large intestine is a tubular organ made up of seven parts from the cecum to the rectum, that water and electrolytes are absorbed to form solid feces, and that intestinal bacteria produce substances such as vitamin K, all match the Guide.

Q9 | Enzymes and substrates

Which of the following correctly matches a digestive enzyme with its function?

  1. Lipase — a digestive enzyme contained in saliva that breaks down starch into dextrin and maltose
  2. Maltase — breaks down carbohydrates into monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose)
  3. Ptyalin — a digestive enzyme, contained in pancreatic juice, that acts to break down lipids
  4. Erepsin — a digestive enzyme on the intestinal mucosa that breaks down carbohydrates into monosaccharides
AnswerB. Maltase — breaks down carbohydrates into monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose)

The Guide lists maltase, lactase, and the like as digestive enzymes on the intestinal mucosa that break down carbohydrates into monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose). Lipase is an enzyme that breaks down lipids, erepsin is an enzyme that breaks down partially digested protein into amino acids, and ptyalin (salivary amylase) is an enzyme that breaks down starch into dextrin and maltose—every pairing here is incorrect.

Q10 | Absorption of nutrients

Which of the following statements about the absorption of nutrients in the small intestine is incorrect?

  1. Carbohydrates and protein are broken down by the action of digestive enzymes into monosaccharides and amino acids respectively, and absorbed.
  2. When lipids become chylomicron particles, fat-soluble vitamins are also taken up together.
  3. After being absorbed by the epithelial cells of the small intestine's mucosa, lipids are carried throughout the body in their unchanged form, without being re-formed.
  4. Lipids (triglycerides) are broken down by the action of a digestive enzyme (lipase).
AnswerC. After being absorbed by the epithelial cells of the small intestine's mucosa, lipids are carried throughout the body in their unchanged form, without being re-formed.

The Guide states that lipids are broken down by the action of lipase, but once absorbed by the epithelial cells of the small intestine's mucosa, they are re-formed into lipids, becoming chylomicron particles (a type of lipoprotein, also called chylomicrons). That carbohydrates and protein are broken down into monosaccharides and amino acids respectively and absorbed, and that fat-soluble vitamins are taken up together when chylomicron particles form, both match the Guide.

Q11 | The respiratory system

Which of the following statements about the respiratory system is correct?

  1. The larynx is a cylindrical organ surrounded by cartilage between the pharynx and the trachea, and also plays a role as the organ of voice production.
  2. Of the airway, the part from the pharynx to the larynx is called the lower airway, and the part from the trachea through the bronchi to the lungs is called the upper airway.
  3. Nasal mucus contains pepsin, serving as one of the airway's defense mechanisms.
  4. The pharynx belongs only to the airway, and does not belong to the digestive tract.
AnswerA. The larynx is a cylindrical organ surrounded by cartilage between the pharynx and the trachea, and also plays a role as the organ of voice production.

The Guide states that the larynx is a cylindrical organ surrounded by cartilage between the pharynx and the trachea, and also plays a role as the organ of voice production, with sound produced by exhaled breath vibrating the vocal cords. The upper airway is the part from the pharynx to the larynx, and the lower airway is the part from the trachea through the bronchi to the lungs—the statement reverses this. The pharynx belongs to both the digestive tract and the airway. The substance contained in nasal mucus that serves as one of the airway's defense mechanisms is lysozyme.

Q12 | The lungs and gas exchange

Which of the following statements about the lungs is incorrect?

  1. Across the alveolar wall, carbon dioxide diffuses from the blood into the alveolar air, and in exchange oxygen is taken up into red blood cells in the blood.
  2. The lungs themselves have muscle tissue that moves them, and they expand and contract on their own to carry out respiratory movement.
  3. The tissue surrounding and supporting the alveoli and capillaries is called the interstitium.
  4. Inside the lungs, the bronchi branch finely, and the spherical sac-like part at their terminal end is called the alveolus.
AnswerB. The lungs themselves have muscle tissue that moves them, and they expand and contract on their own to carry out respiratory movement.

The Guide states that because the lungs themselves have no muscle tissue to move them, they do not expand and contract on their own; rather, respiratory movement is carried out through expansion and contraction driven by the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. That alveoli are the spherical sac-like terminal parts of the bronchi, the definition of the interstitium, and the description of gas exchange across the alveolar wall, all match the Guide.

Q13 | Structure of the heart

Which of the following statements about the heart is correct?

  1. The right side of the heart (right atrium, right ventricle) sends blood gathered from throughout the body out to the lungs.
  2. Blood that has undergone gas exchange in the lungs enters the right side of the heart, from which it is sent out to the whole body.
  3. The interior of the heart is divided into four cavities: the upper left and right ventricles, and the lower left and right atria.
  4. The ventricles gather blood and send it to the atria, and the atria pump the blood out.
AnswerA. The right side of the heart (right atrium, right ventricle) sends blood gathered from throughout the body out to the lungs.

The Guide states that the right side of the heart (right atrium, right ventricle) sends blood gathered from throughout the body out to the lungs, and blood that has undergone gas exchange in the lungs enters the left side of the heart (left atrium, left ventricle), from which it is sent out to the whole body. The interior of the heart has the atria in the upper left and right and the ventricles in the lower left and right, with the atria gathering blood and sending it to the ventricles, and the ventricles pumping it out.

Q14 | The vascular system

Which of the following statements about the vascular system is incorrect?

  1. A blood vessel carrying blood pumped out from the heart is called an artery, and one carrying blood returning to the heart is called a vein.
  2. Most of the capillaries running through the digestive tract wall gather into a blood vessel called the portal vein and enter the kidneys.
  3. In veins running through the limbs, venous valves are well developed at regular intervals, preventing the backflow of blood.
  4. Because the pressure placed on a vein is relatively low, its vessel wall is thinner than that of an artery.
AnswerB. Most of the capillaries running through the digestive tract wall gather into a blood vessel called the portal vein and enter the kidneys.

The Guide states that most of the capillaries running through the digestive tract wall gather into a blood vessel called the portal vein and enter the liver. This is a mechanism by which substances absorbed in the digestive tract pass once through the liver, undergoing metabolism and detoxification, before circulating throughout the body. The definitions of artery and vein, the fact that a vein's wall is thinner than an artery's, and that venous valves are well developed in veins running through the limbs, all match the Guide.

Q15 | Plasma

Which of the following statements about plasma is correct?

  1. Most of albumin serves as an antibody that specifically recognizes foreign substances in immune responses.
  2. Albumin forms complexes with hormones, medicine ingredients, and the like, making them less susceptible to metabolism and excretion when carried by the blood.
  3. Blood viscosity is mainly determined by the amount of lipid in the blood, and the water content of plasma and the amount of red blood cells have almost no effect.
  4. Plasma is composed of about 50% water, with the majority of the remainder being protein.
AnswerB. Albumin forms complexes with hormones, medicine ingredients, and the like, making them less susceptible to metabolism and excretion when carried by the blood.

The Guide states that albumin has the function of maintaining blood osmotic pressure, and also forms complexes with hormones, medicine ingredients, and the like, making them less susceptible to metabolism and excretion. Plasma is composed of 90% or more water. The substance that serves as an antibody is globulin (immunoglobulin). Blood viscosity is mainly determined by the water content of plasma and the amount of red blood cells, and the amount of lipid in the blood has almost no effect.

Q16 | Red blood cells

Which of the following statements about red blood cells is incorrect?

  1. A red blood cell is a disk-shaped cell with a depressed center, accounting for about 40% of the total blood volume.
  2. Hemoglobin is a protein bound to iron, which binds with oxygen molecules where oxygen levels are high.
  3. Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.
  4. Most carbon dioxide binds with hemoglobin and is carried from peripheral tissues to the lungs.
AnswerD. Most carbon dioxide binds with hemoglobin and is carried from peripheral tissues to the lungs.

The Guide states that carbon dioxide hardly binds with hemoglobin at all, and is instead carried from peripheral tissues to the lungs dissolved in the plasma. That red blood cells are disk-shaped cells accounting for about 40% of total blood volume, that hemoglobin is a protein bound to iron that binds with oxygen molecules where oxygen levels are high, and that red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow, all match the Guide.

Q17 | Types of white blood cells

Which of the following statements about white blood cells is correct?

  1. Lymphocytes account for about one-third of white blood cells, and include T lymphocytes, which recognize foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses, and B lymphocytes, which produce antibodies against them.
  2. Monocytes are the most numerous type of white blood cell, accounting for about 60% of them, and pass through blood vessel walls into tissue, taking in and breaking down bacteria, viruses, and the like by phagocytosis.
  3. When infection or inflammation occurs, the total number of white blood cells increases, but the proportion of each type never changes.
  4. Neutrophils account for only about 5% of white blood cells, few in number but the largest, and are called macrophages in tissue, having strong phagocytic activity.
AnswerA. Lymphocytes account for about one-third of white blood cells, and include T lymphocytes, which recognize foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses, and B lymphocytes, which produce antibodies against them.

The Guide states that lymphocytes account for about one-third of white blood cells, and include T lymphocytes, which recognize foreign substances, and B lymphocytes, which produce antibodies (immunoglobulins). The type accounting for about 60% of white blood cells and most numerous is the neutrophil, and the type accounting for only about 5%, few in number but the largest, called macrophages in tissue, is the monocyte—the descriptions here are swapped. Also, when infection or inflammation occurs, the total number increases and the proportion of each type also changes.

Q18 | Platelets and hemostasis

Which of the following statements about platelets and the mechanism of hemostasis is incorrect?

  1. Fibrin, a type of plasma protein, polymerizes at the wound to become fibrous fibrinogen.
  2. Red blood cells, platelets, and the like become entangled in fibrin fibers, forming a blood clot that seals the wound.
  3. A damaged blood vessel reduces blood flow by contracting its wall, preventing a large amount of blood from flowing out.
  4. Platelets adhere and aggregate at the site of injury, covering the wound.
AnswerA. Fibrin, a type of plasma protein, polymerizes at the wound to become fibrous fibrinogen.

The Guide states that fibrinogen, a type of plasma protein, polymerizes at the wound to become fibrous fibrin—the relationship between fibrinogen and fibrin is reversed in the statement. That blood flow is reduced through contraction of the vessel wall, that platelets adhere and aggregate, and that red blood cells and platelets become entangled in fibrin fibers to form a blood clot sealing the wound, all match the Guide.

Q19 | The spleen

Which of the following statements about the spleen is correct?

  1. The spleen is a fist-sized, sponge-like organ located in the upper left abdomen behind the stomach.
  2. The spleen's main function is to filter out and process aged white blood cells from the blood flowing through it.
  3. The spleen has no lymphatic tissue and plays no part in immune responses.
  4. Red blood cells that have aged and lost flexibility slip through the spleen's mesh-like structure and return to the general circulation.
AnswerA. The spleen is a fist-sized, sponge-like organ located in the upper left abdomen behind the stomach.

The Guide states that the spleen is a fist-sized, sponge-like organ located in the upper left abdomen behind the stomach. Its main function is to filter out and process aged red blood cells (not white blood cells). Red blood cells that have aged and lost flexibility get caught in the mesh-like structure and are destroyed by macrophages. The spleen has lymphatic tissue where lymphocytes proliferate and cluster, and it plays a part in immune responses against foreign substances in the bloodstream.

Q20 | The lymphatic system

Which of the following statements about the lymphatic system is incorrect?

  1. Lymphocytes and macrophages are densely packed inside a lymph node, and bacteria, viruses, and the like carried there by lymph fluid are eliminated there through immune reactions.
  2. Lymph fluid is composed of almost the same components as plasma, but has less protein and contains lymphocytes.
  3. Lymphatic vessels merge with one another and gradually become thicker, ultimately connecting to an artery beneath the collarbone.
  4. The lymphatic system has no organ that acts as a pump the way the heart does, and the flow of lymph fluid is mainly driven by the contraction of skeletal muscle.
AnswerC. Lymphatic vessels merge with one another and gradually become thicker, ultimately connecting to an artery beneath the collarbone.

The Guide states that lymphatic vessels merge with one another and gradually become thicker, ultimately connecting to a vein (not an artery) beneath the collarbone. That the flow of lymph fluid is mainly driven by the contraction of skeletal muscle, that lymph fluid's composition is almost the same as plasma's but with less protein and containing lymphocytes, and the description of the immune reaction at the lymph node, all match the Guide.

Q21 | The nephron

Which of the following statements about the structure of the kidney is correct?

  1. The outside of the glomerulus is enclosed by the sac-like Bowman's capsule, and together they are called the renal corpuscle.
  2. Reabsorption of waste products takes place in the renal corpuscle, and filtration of the blood takes place in the renal tubule.
  3. The kidneys are a pair of broad-bean-shaped organs located above the diaphragm, on either side of the spine.
  4. The renal tubule and the ureter together make up the nephron, the kidney's basic functional unit.
AnswerA. The outside of the glomerulus is enclosed by the sac-like Bowman's capsule, and together they are called the renal corpuscle.

The Guide states that the outside of the glomerulus, a small ball of capillaries, is enclosed by the sac-like Bowman's capsule, and together they are called the renal corpuscle. The nephron is made up of the renal corpuscle and the renal tubule, not the ureter. The kidneys are located below the diaphragm. Waste products in the blood are filtered at the renal corpuscle to become the primary urine, and nutrients and water and electrolytes are reabsorbed at the renal tubule—the locations of filtration and reabsorption are reversed in the statement.

Q22 | Primary urine and reabsorption

Which of the following statements about the production of urine in the kidney is incorrect?

  1. At the renal tubule, nutrients such as glucose and amino acids in the primary urine, and water and electrolytes needed to maintain the blood, are reabsorbed.
  2. Plasma components other than blood cells and protein are also filtered at the renal corpuscle.
  3. Urine is produced by the filtration of blood, but microorganisms such as bacteria are always present even in a healthy state.
  4. At the renal corpuscle, waste products in the blood, such as urea, are filtered and enter the renal tubule as primary urine.
AnswerC. Urine is produced by the filtration of blood, but microorganisms such as bacteria are always present even in a healthy state.

The Guide states that because urine is produced by the filtration of blood, unlike feces, no microorganisms such as bacteria are present in a healthy state. The filtration of waste products at the renal corpuscle, that plasma components other than blood cells and protein are also filtered, and the reabsorption of nutrients such as glucose and amino acids and of water and electrolytes at the renal tubule, all match the Guide.

Q23 | Function of the kidney

Which of the following statements about the kidney is correct?

  1. In the kidney, the regulation of excretion is carried out for water and electrolytes, particularly calcium.
  2. One-half to one-third of the blood pumped out by the heart flows through the kidneys.
  3. Vitamin K, whether ingested from food or biosynthesized in the body, is converted into its active form in the kidney.
  4. The kidney also has a function as an endocrine gland, secreting a hormone that promotes the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
AnswerD. The kidney also has a function as an endocrine gland, secreting a hormone that promotes the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.

The Guide states that the kidney also has a function as an endocrine gland, secreting a hormone that promotes the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow. One-fifth to one-quarter of the blood pumped out by the heart flows through the kidneys. The vitamin converted into its active form in the kidney is vitamin D. The electrolyte particularly noted for excretion regulation is sodium.

Q24 | The adrenal gland

Which of the following statements about the adrenal gland is incorrect?

  1. Aldosterone plays a role in regulating the excretion of electrolytes and water.
  2. In the adrenal cortex, adrenaline and noradrenaline, which act on the autonomic nervous system, are produced and secreted.
  3. Aldosterone, one of the adrenocortical hormones, has the action of retaining salt and water in the body and promoting the excretion of potassium.
  4. The adrenal glands are attached to the top of each of the left and right kidneys, and consist of two layers, the cortex and the medulla.
AnswerB. In the adrenal cortex, adrenaline and noradrenaline, which act on the autonomic nervous system, are produced and secreted.

The Guide states that adrenaline (epinephrine) and noradrenaline (norepinephrine) are produced and secreted in the adrenal medulla, while adrenocortical hormones are produced and secreted in the adrenal cortex. That the adrenal glands are attached to the top of the kidneys and consist of the cortex and medulla, that aldosterone retains salt and water while promoting potassium excretion, and that it plays a role in regulating the excretion of electrolytes and water, all match the Guide.

Q25 | The urinary tract

Which of the following statements about the urinary tract (bladder, urethra) is correct?

  1. Because men have a short urethra, infection can readily spread to the bladder when bacteria and the like invade.
  2. When the bladder sphincter muscle at the bladder's outlet relaxes, the detrusor muscle of the bladder wall contracts at the same time, pushing urine out into the urethra.
  3. In women, the prostate gland surrounds the urethra directly below the bladder, and can enlarge with age.
  4. During urination, the bladder sphincter muscle at the bladder's outlet contracts at the same time as the detrusor muscle of the bladder wall relaxes.
AnswerB. When the bladder sphincter muscle at the bladder's outlet relaxes, the detrusor muscle of the bladder wall contracts at the same time, pushing urine out into the urethra.

The Guide states that when the bladder sphincter muscle at the bladder's outlet relaxes, the detrusor muscle of the bladder wall contracts at the same time, pushing urine out into the urethra—the statement describing contraction of the sphincter and relaxation of the detrusor reverses this. It is women, having a short urethra, in whom infection can readily spread to the bladder, and it is men in whom the prostate gland is located directly below the bladder.

Q26 | Structure of the eye

Which of the following statements about the eye is correct?

  1. Blood vessels run through the transparent cornea and lens, from which nutrients and oxygen are supplied.
  2. The space between the retina and the lens is filled with a transparent, jelly-like tissue called the aqueous humor.
  3. The space between the cornea and the lens is filled with tissue fluid (aqueous humor), producing a constant pressure inside the eye (intraocular pressure).
  4. The iris lies in front of the lens, and adjusts near and far focus by changing the lens's thickness.
AnswerC. The space between the cornea and the lens is filled with tissue fluid (aqueous humor), producing a constant pressure inside the eye (intraocular pressure).

The Guide states that the space between the cornea and the lens is filled with tissue fluid (aqueous humor), producing a constant intraocular pressure. No blood vessels run through the transparent cornea or lens, and nutrients and oxygen are supplied by the aqueous humor. The iris dilates and constricts the pupil to regulate the amount of light entering the eye; near and far focus is adjusted mainly by changes in the lens's thickness (through contraction and relaxation of the ciliary body). The space inside the eyeball from the lens to the retina is filled with the vitreous body.

Q27 | The lens and retina

Which of the following statements about the eye is incorrect?

  1. Vitamin A is essential to the reaction by which the photoreceptor cells that respond sensitively even to faint light sense light, and a deficiency causes reduced night vision (night blindness).
  2. The lens becomes flatter when viewing a near object, and rounder and thicker when viewing a distant object.
  3. Through contraction and relaxation of the ciliary body, the lens becomes rounder and thicker when viewing a near object, and flatter when viewing a distant object.
  4. Photoreceptor cells that receive light are densely packed in the retina, and the retina's nerve fibers bundle together at the back of the eyeball to form the optic nerve.
AnswerB. The lens becomes flatter when viewing a near object, and rounder and thicker when viewing a distant object.

The Guide states that through contraction and relaxation of the ciliary body, the lens becomes rounder and thicker when viewing a near object, and flatter when viewing a distant object, so statement 4, which reverses this, is incorrect. The description of the retina's photoreceptor cells and optic nerve, and of night blindness from vitamin A deficiency, both match the Guide.

Q28 | Tear fluid and conjunctiva

Which of the following statements about the eyelid, conjunctiva, and lacrimal apparatus is correct?

  1. In conjunctival congestion, the white of the eye turns red, but the underside of the eyelid does not turn red and remains white.
  2. Because the eyelid's subcutaneous tissue is thick and sturdy, it rarely suffers internal bleeding or lacerations even from injury.
  3. Tear fluid contains lysozyme, immunoglobulin, and the like, and works to protect the cornea and conjunctiva from infection.
  4. The lacrimal gland is a secretory gland on the underside of the lower eyelid, producing tear fluid from lymph fluid as its material.
AnswerC. Tear fluid contains lysozyme, immunoglobulin, and the like, and works to protect the cornea and conjunctiva from infection.

The Guide states that tear fluid contains lysozyme, immunoglobulin, and the like, and protects the cornea and conjunctiva from infection. The lacrimal gland is a secretory gland on the underside of the upper eyelid, producing tear fluid from plasma. In conjunctival congestion, not only the white of the eye but also the underside of the eyelid turns red (it is scleral congestion in which the underside of the eyelid does not turn red). Because the eyelid's subcutaneous tissue is thin and sparse, it readily suffers internal bleeding or lacerations.

Q29 | The nose and sinuses

Which of the following statements about the nose is incorrect?

  1. When an odor molecule stimulates the olfactory cells in the mucosa of the upper nasal cavity, the stimulus is conveyed to the brain's olfactory center.
  2. The front part of the nasal septum is prone to injury and nosebleeds because it has an abundant distribution of capillaries in addition to thin mucosa.
  3. The sense of smell is extremely sensitive but readily adapts, so that continuing to smell the same odor gradually leads to no longer perceiving it.
  4. Because the tube connecting the paranasal sinuses and the nasal cavity is thick and wide, swelling of the nasal cavity's mucosa never causes inflammation in the paranasal sinuses.
AnswerD. Because the tube connecting the paranasal sinuses and the nasal cavity is thick and wide, swelling of the nasal cavity's mucosa never causes inflammation in the paranasal sinuses.

The Guide states that the paranasal sinuses connect to the nasal cavity via a narrow tube, and because this tube is very narrow, swelling of the nasal cavity's mucosa can readily block the opening of a paranasal sinus, causing inflammation there. That stimulation of the olfactory cells is conveyed to the olfactory center, that the sense of smell readily adapts, and that the front of the nasal septum is prone to nosebleeds, all match the Guide.

Q30 | Structure of the ear

Which of the following statements about the ear is correct?

  1. The inner ear consists of two parts: the vestibule, the hearing organ that senses sound, and the cochlea, the balance organ that senses body balance.
  2. In small children, the Eustachian tube is thick and short with a nearly horizontal course, so viruses and bacteria readily invade from the nasal cavity, causing infection.
  3. The inside of the cochlea is filled with air, and the mechanism by which sound is sensed is that vibration conveyed from the auditory ossicles directly stimulates the auditory nerve.
  4. The outer ear consists of three parts—the eardrum, the tympanic cavity, and the auditory ossicles and Eustachian tube—with the auditory ossicles amplifying the eardrum's vibration and conducting it to the inner ear.
AnswerB. In small children, the Eustachian tube is thick and short with a nearly horizontal course, so viruses and bacteria readily invade from the nasal cavity, causing infection.

The Guide states that in small children, the Eustachian tube is thick and short with a nearly horizontal course, so viruses and bacteria readily invade from the nasal cavity, causing infection. The inner ear consists of the cochlea, the hearing organ, and the vestibule, the balance organ—the statement reverses this. It is the middle ear that consists of the eardrum, tympanic cavity, auditory ossicles, and Eustachian tube. The inside of the cochlea is filled with lymph fluid, and vibration shakes the lymph fluid, which moves the sensory hairs of the hearing cells, stimulating the auditory nerve.

Q31 | Role of white blood cells

Which of the following statements about the types of white blood cells and their roles is correct?

  1. Lymphocytes account for only about 5% of white blood cells, few in number but the largest, with strong phagocytic activity, and are cells called macrophages in tissue.
  2. Neutrophils can pass through blood vessel walls into tissue, migrating to and gathering at a site of infection, and taking in and breaking down bacteria, viruses, and the like by phagocytosis.
  3. Among white blood cells, some are involved in infection by bacteria, viruses, and the like, but none is involved in allergy.
  4. Monocytes proliferate in lymphatic tissue such as the lymph nodes and spleen, recognizing foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses and also producing antibodies (immunoglobulins) against them.
AnswerB. Neutrophils can pass through blood vessel walls into tissue, migrating to and gathering at a site of infection, and taking in and breaking down bacteria, viruses, and the like by phagocytosis.

The Guide states that neutrophils can pass through blood vessel walls into tissue, migrating to and gathering at a site of infection, and taking in and breaking down bacteria, viruses, and the like by phagocytosis. The type accounting for only about 5% of white blood cells, few in number but the largest, with strong phagocytic activity, is the monocyte, and the type that proliferates in lymphatic tissue and produces antibodies is the lymphocyte (B lymphocyte)—the descriptions here are swapped. It is also stated that, besides these, there are white blood cells involved in allergy.

Q32 | The central nervous system

Which of the following statements about the central nervous system is correct?

  1. The cardiac center, which regulates heart rate, and the respiratory center, which regulates breathing, are located in the spinal cord.
  2. The function by which the brain's capillaries work to protect the interstitial fluid environment of the central nervous system from fluctuations in the composition of the blood is called the blood-brain barrier.
  3. The brain's oxygen consumption is about 25% of the body's total, and its glucose consumption is about 20% of the body's total.
  4. A spinal reflex means that all stimuli from the periphery are processed via the brain.
AnswerB. The function by which the brain's capillaries work to protect the interstitial fluid environment of the central nervous system from fluctuations in the composition of the blood is called the blood-brain barrier.

The Guide states that the function by which the brain's capillaries work to protect the interstitial fluid environment of the central nervous system from fluctuations in the composition of the blood is called the blood-brain barrier. The brain's oxygen consumption is about 20% of the body's total, and its glucose consumption is about 25%—the figures are swapped in the statement. The cardiac center and respiratory center are located in the medulla oblongata. A spinal reflex is a response returned to some peripheral stimuli without going through the brain.

Q33 | The blood-brain barrier

Which of the following statements about the blood-brain barrier is incorrect?

  1. In the brain, the volume of blood circulation is about 15% of cardiac output.
  2. Large molecules such as proteins, and even small molecules if ionized, have difficulty moving from the blood into the brain's tissue.
  3. The brain's blood vessels have higher selectivity regarding the passage of substances than peripheral vessels.
  4. In children, because the blood-brain barrier is developed, a medicine's ingredients that have entered the circulating blood have difficulty reaching brain tissue.
AnswerD. In children, because the blood-brain barrier is developed, a medicine's ingredients that have entered the circulating blood have difficulty reaching brain tissue.

The Guide states that in children, because the blood-brain barrier is undeveloped, a medicine's ingredients that have entered the circulating blood readily reach brain tissue—the statement reverses this. That the brain's blood vessels have high selectivity regarding the passage of substances, that large molecules such as proteins and ionized small molecules have difficulty moving into brain tissue, and that the brain's blood circulation volume is about 15% of cardiac output, all match the Guide.

Q34 | Skin and sweat glands

Which of the following statements about the skin is incorrect?

  1. The arrector pili muscle contracts in response to stimuli such as changes in temperature or emotion, causing the pilomotor reflex (so-called 'goose bumps'), in which the pores rise up.
  2. Melanin pigment is produced by melanin-producing cells (melanocytes) in the bottom layer of the epidermis.
  3. The skin has a three-layer structure of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue.
  4. Apocrine glands (body odor glands) are distributed throughout the body, including areas without hair roots such as the palms.
AnswerD. Apocrine glands (body odor glands) are distributed throughout the body, including areas without hair roots such as the palms.

The Guide states that apocrine glands (body odor glands) are distributed at hair-root areas such as the armpits, while eccrine glands are distributed throughout the body, including areas without hair roots such as the palms—the two are swapped in the statement. That the skin has a three-layer structure of epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, that melanin pigment is produced by melanocytes in the bottom layer of the epidermis, and the description of the pilomotor reflex from contraction of the arrector pili muscle, all match the Guide.

Q35 | The autonomic nervous system and the eye

Which of the following statements about the action of the autonomic nervous system on effector organs is correct?

  1. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the pupil dilates.
  2. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, the pupil dilates.
  3. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, a small amount of viscous saliva is secreted.
  4. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, salivation increases.
AnswerA. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the pupil dilates.

According to the Guide's table, for the eye, the sympathetic nervous system acts to dilate the pupil, and the parasympathetic nervous system acts to constrict it. For the salivary glands, the sympathetic nervous system causes secretion of a small amount of viscous saliva, and the parasympathetic nervous system increases salivation—so the other statements all swap the actions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems and are incorrect.

Q36 | The autonomic nervous system and the heart

Which of the following statements about the action of the autonomic nervous system on the heart and peripheral blood vessels is incorrect?

  1. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, heart rate decreases.
  2. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, peripheral blood vessels dilate and blood pressure falls.
  3. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, peripheral blood vessels dilate and blood pressure falls.
  4. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, heart rate increases.
AnswerC. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, peripheral blood vessels dilate and blood pressure falls.

According to the Guide's table, for peripheral blood vessels, the sympathetic nervous system acts to constrict them (raising blood pressure), and the parasympathetic nervous system acts to dilate them (lowering blood pressure), so the statement that peripheral blood vessels dilate under the sympathetic nervous system is incorrect. That the sympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and the parasympathetic nervous system decreases it matches the Guide.

Q37 | The autonomic nervous system and the bronchi

Which of the following statements about the action of the autonomic nervous system on the trachea, bronchi, and stomach is correct?

  1. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, gastric juice secretion increases.
  2. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, the trachea and bronchi dilate.
  3. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the trachea and bronchi dilate.
  4. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, the stomach's blood vessels constrict.
AnswerC. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the trachea and bronchi dilate.

According to the Guide's table, for the trachea and bronchi, the sympathetic nervous system acts to dilate them, and the parasympathetic nervous system acts to constrict them. For the stomach, the sympathetic nervous system acts to constrict its blood vessels, and the parasympathetic nervous system acts to increase gastric juice secretion—so the other statements all swap the actions of the two nervous systems and are incorrect.

Q38 | The autonomic nervous system and the intestine

Which of the following statements about the action of the autonomic nervous system on the intestine and liver is incorrect?

  1. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, glycogen is broken down in the liver and glucose is released.
  2. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, intestinal motility increases.
  3. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, intestinal motility increases.
  4. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, glycogen synthesis takes place in the liver.
AnswerB. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, intestinal motility increases.

According to the Guide's table, for the intestine, the sympathetic nervous system acts to reduce motility, and the parasympathetic nervous system acts to increase it, so the statement that intestinal motility increases under the sympathetic nervous system is incorrect. That the sympathetic nervous system causes the breakdown of glycogen (release of glucose) in the liver and the parasympathetic nervous system causes its synthesis matches the Guide.

Q39 | The autonomic nervous system and the bladder

Which of the following statements about the action of the autonomic nervous system on the bladder and skin is correct?

  1. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the detrusor muscle relaxes and urination is suppressed.
  2. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, the detrusor muscle relaxes and urination is promoted.
  3. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, the arrector pili muscle on the body's surface contracts.
  4. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the detrusor muscle contracts and urination is promoted.
AnswerA. When the sympathetic nervous system becomes active, the detrusor muscle relaxes and urination is suppressed.

According to the Guide's table, for the bladder, the sympathetic nervous system acts to relax the detrusor muscle (suppressing urination), and the parasympathetic nervous system acts to contract it (promoting urination). Contraction of the detrusor muscle is a parasympathetic action, so a statement combining relaxation with promotion is also incorrect. Contraction of the arrector pili muscle is a sympathetic action, and for the parasympathetic nervous system the Guide's table shows '—' (no listed action).

Q40 | Neurotransmitters

Which of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is incorrect?

  1. Effector organs are governed by two nervous systems, the sympathetic and the parasympathetic, which ordinarily work in opposition to each other.
  2. The neurotransmitter released from the ends of the sympathetic nervous system's postganglionic fibers is noradrenaline.
  3. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, sweating from the sweat glands increases.
  4. At the ends of the sympathetic nerve fibers innervating the sweat glands, acetylcholine is exceptionally released as the transmitter.
AnswerC. When the parasympathetic nervous system becomes active, sweating from the sweat glands increases.

According to the Guide's table, increased sweating from the sweat glands is a sympathetic action, with '—' (no listed action) shown for the parasympathetic nervous system, so the statement that sweating increases under the parasympathetic nervous system is incorrect. That the neurotransmitter at the ends of the sympathetic postganglionic fibers is noradrenaline, that acetylcholine is exceptionally released at the ends of the sympathetic nerve fibers innervating the sweat glands, and the dual innervation and antagonism of the autonomic nervous system, all match the Guide.

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